Inspired by my other thread: about alexander the great continuing his invasion of India: https://www.alternatehistory.com/Discussion/showthread.php?t=253066
This question has perplexed me for some time now-why didn't the mongols, at their height around 1240-1270 AD invade the then disunited sultanates of India? On the face of it its a highly logical choice. Not only had one of the rulers of the Muslim sultanates backed an uprising by Jalal ad-Din ( the son of the last Khwarezmian shah) but they were also very wealthy and very dis-united, with a minority Muslim upper class trying to control the lower class Hindu population.
While the Hindu kush and the Indus river may have posed formidable natural barriers, the Mongols had already bypassed or crossed over mountain ranges and rivers on numerous occasions, often using them to surprise and trap their enemies ( battle of the yellow river or badgers pass being two good examples.)
The Indian armies may also have been formidable, but they hardly presented a united front, with moral and training among the peasant levies being low. When you consider that the mongols had already crushed the Chin or northern China who possessed a vast army of well trained troops, and annihilated the Arab army of the Khwarezmian empire which possessed elephants-these smaller armies shouldn't be too much of a threat.
A century later, Tamerlane showed this brutally when his army of horse archers, very slimier to mongol armies in composition and numbers, wiped out a force from Delhi sent to oppose him, including a large contingent of elephants ( who panicked when arrows were fired at them.)
100,000 Delhi inhabitants were massacred.
So why then, with all the resource and troops available too them, did the mongols, in particular under Ogedai, Mongoke and of course, Kublai Khan did they not decide too invade this highly lucrative prize? While the civil war between Ariq Bök and Kublai around 1260-1264 as well as the brief confrontation between
Chagatai, Güyük and Batu following Ogedai's death may well have distracted their attention from the area, not to mention their obsession of finishing the Song dynasty in Southern China. Yet this still fails to explain the lack of Mongol intervention on the subcontinent.
Is their something i'm missing or was their a deliberate purpose behind the mongols missing out India?
All ideas are welcome.
This question has perplexed me for some time now-why didn't the mongols, at their height around 1240-1270 AD invade the then disunited sultanates of India? On the face of it its a highly logical choice. Not only had one of the rulers of the Muslim sultanates backed an uprising by Jalal ad-Din ( the son of the last Khwarezmian shah) but they were also very wealthy and very dis-united, with a minority Muslim upper class trying to control the lower class Hindu population.
While the Hindu kush and the Indus river may have posed formidable natural barriers, the Mongols had already bypassed or crossed over mountain ranges and rivers on numerous occasions, often using them to surprise and trap their enemies ( battle of the yellow river or badgers pass being two good examples.)
The Indian armies may also have been formidable, but they hardly presented a united front, with moral and training among the peasant levies being low. When you consider that the mongols had already crushed the Chin or northern China who possessed a vast army of well trained troops, and annihilated the Arab army of the Khwarezmian empire which possessed elephants-these smaller armies shouldn't be too much of a threat.
A century later, Tamerlane showed this brutally when his army of horse archers, very slimier to mongol armies in composition and numbers, wiped out a force from Delhi sent to oppose him, including a large contingent of elephants ( who panicked when arrows were fired at them.)
100,000 Delhi inhabitants were massacred.
So why then, with all the resource and troops available too them, did the mongols, in particular under Ogedai, Mongoke and of course, Kublai Khan did they not decide too invade this highly lucrative prize? While the civil war between Ariq Bök and Kublai around 1260-1264 as well as the brief confrontation between
Chagatai, Güyük and Batu following Ogedai's death may well have distracted their attention from the area, not to mention their obsession of finishing the Song dynasty in Southern China. Yet this still fails to explain the lack of Mongol intervention on the subcontinent.
Is their something i'm missing or was their a deliberate purpose behind the mongols missing out India?
All ideas are welcome.