I'd think about the only way it would change is if the USA had given itself a different name, and didn't refer to themselves as Americans. Then, the term could be applied to Native Americans, just like Europeans, Asians, etc....
And the same reason why we continue to call Japanese 'Japs', and Nigerians 'Niggers'.
Well, that's just a rather inaccurate and ignorant statement. More accurately we call the people of Nippon 'Japanese,' and there are countless ethnic groups in Nigeria. And the word 'nigger' is from the Spanish 'negro,' or black, through French. Note the hard g. Nigeria is named for the Niger River, which is not originally related to the word for black. The Tuareg name for the river sounds similar to the Latin for black, 'niger.' Note the soft g.
Kind of the point. Using the term 'Indian' to describe native Americans is also rather inaccurate and ignorant, and we could be far more accurate, rather than using blanket terms based on rationales which have long since been debunked. But we choose not to be, and as such, we still use the term anyway.
Given that the people themselves generally are fine with the term "Indian"- and often prefer it to "Native American" - you're coming off very patronizing here.
I don't agree with 'Native American' either. And 'Indian', is a nationality, not an ethnicity. There are even more distinct cultures and ethnicities in India than there are in the Americas; far more than there are in Europe. And 'European' is also fine- as a categorization which is also based on nationality, rather than one with a racial basis, it's also acceptable. So's 'African'- if the said group of people are actually African nationals. IMHO, using these blanket terms to cover anyone and everyone from a (extremely vague and non-specific, absurdly broad, and poorly defined) racial background isn't a good thing; it is inaccurate, and it does show ignorance ("Russians, Turks, Brits, Frenchies, Italians, Swedes, Spaniards- what's the difference? They're all just Europeans, and they're fine with that term. Don't patronize them by distinguishing between them.")
The term European is used all the time. There's no derogatory ignorance by discussing a group of humans under a title that is based off of their geography. Someone can be ignorant and think everyone of a group is the same, but that goes to any level (continent, nationality, ethnicity, village, family, etc.).
But the term 'Indian' doesn't have a geographical basis for the indigenous peoples of the Americas. Perhaps this would be a better example to illustrate the point I was trying to make; "Mexicans, Brazilians, Argentinians, Columbians, Venezuelans, Chileans, Cubans- what's the difference? They're all just Hispanics, and they're fine with that term. Don't patronize them by distinguishing between them."
There is a geographic (and historical) unity to them. The Americas were isolated from the old world for millennia. They were also more or less universally victims of the disease outbreaks of the Colombian Exchange.
Also no one said it was patronising to divide between Iroquois and Cherokee and Mayan and Quecha. They were saying it was patronising to become offended for an over arching term that many are fine with. Do you rally against calling Europeans European and state that Europeans should be outraged by the idea?
Well Brazil is definitely Latin American. Haiti is sort of, as is Quebec. French is a Latin based language after all. It would be condescending to put people in a group they don't belong to (Inuit are not First Nations, but they are Native. Also they were pretty well never called Indian).Is a Brazilian 'Hispanic'? Is a Haitian 'Hispanic'? Are the natives of those lands, descended from those peoples who originally resided there prior to the arrival of Columbus and the Conquistadors, 'Hispanic'? There may be some geographic (and historical) unity between them, but that tag certainly can't applied to them all without becoming somewhat condescending.
Ignorance yes, but there's a lot of terms used in English today based on ignorance. California was named because it was thought to be an island. A name that came from ignorance can still stick for no good reason and have no real problems.Well, if they're fine with the over-arching term, then fair enough. One can't be offended on someone else's behalf when they're not. But the original usage of the term was still rooted in ignorance, and was, as it still is, inaccurate. Was it prejudicial ignorance? Originally, yes. Is it still prejudicial ignorance? For the most part, no. And I wouldn't really rally against calling Europeans 'Europeans'- that's their own name for themselves.
Considering Europeans traditionally divided themselves between North and South most would probably have no issue what so ever.Perhaps a more fitting comparison would be the insistence upon calling Europeans either 'Kōmōjin' (for lighter skinned/Northern Europeans), or 'Nanbanjin' (for darker skinned/ Southern Europeans). Would you rally against that? Would you state that Europeans should be 'outraged' (watering down the rhetoric, I'd go with 'mildly indignant' to describe my own stance on this) by the idea of being classified under these over-arching terms by everyone else in the world? Because if this were the case, I would personally be willing to rally against it.
I'd think about the only way it would change is if the USA had given itself a different name, and didn't refer to themselves as Americans. Then, the term could be applied to Native Americans, just like Europeans, Asians, etc....
Is a Brazilian 'Hispanic'? Is a Haitian 'Hispanic'? Are the natives of those lands, descended from those peoples who originally resided there prior to the arrival of Columbus and the Conquistadors, 'Hispanic'? There may be some geographic (and historical) unity between them, but that tag certainly can't applied to them all without becoming somewhat condescending.
Well, if they're fine with the over-arching term, then fair enough. One can't be offended on someone else's behalf when they're not. But the original usage of the term was still rooted in ignorance, and was, as it still is, inaccurate. Was it prejudicial ignorance? Originally, yes. Is it still prejudicial ignorance? For the most part, no. And I wouldn't really rally against calling Europeans 'Europeans'- that's their own name for themselves.
Perhaps a more fitting comparison would be the insistence upon calling Europeans either 'Kōmōjin' (for lighter skinned/Northern Europeans), or 'Nanbanjin' (for darker skinned/ Southern Europeans). Would you rally against that? Would you state that Europeans should be 'outraged' (watering down the rhetoric, I'd go with 'mildly indignant' to describe my own stance on this) by the idea of being classified under these over-arching terms by everyone else in the world? Because if this were the case, I would personally be willing to rally against it.
Well Brazil is definitely Latin American. Haiti is sort of, as is Quebec. French is a Latin based language after all. It would be condescending to put people in a group they don't belong to (Inuit are not First Nations, but they are Native. Also they were pretty well never called Indian).
Ignorance yes, but there's a lot of terms used in English today based on ignorance. California was named because it was thought to be an island. A name that came from ignorance can still stick for no good reason and have no real problems.
Considering Europeans traditionally divided themselves between North and South most would probably have no issue what so ever.
Same reason a region in Carribean is called West Indies, I'd think.....
Well, that is just as misleading a term.
By the way, since someone seems to think that I have said that it is offensive to call native Americans "Indians", I have not said so. I repeat what I wrote earlier: I am not saying that it is offensive to call them "Indians" (in fact I would say that it is offensive to people from India to say that it is offensive to call someone "Indians"). What I say is that it is misleading to call them "Indians".