I'd once again argue with this and say that no representation is not the same as some representation, especially when it comes to entire continents, but we're just running around in circles now.
Can I ask you this then?
Assuming for discussion's sake that the 18th century system in Britain is acceptable, or at least as acceptable as any of the options in that century were.
Why should Boston get representatives when Sheffield does not?
I mean, both places are being taxed because of decisions made by men who they didn't vote for.
Also, how much do you know about the Opposition (Burke, Pitt, Richmond, Rockingham. . .) of this era? Most of what I've read about them is contained in Tuchman's book, which is rather too limited to get much of a sense of them beyond generalities if that.