Quite a few historians and authors have convincingly argued that an Allied invasion of France in 1943 (code-named Roundup) would have been successful. With no Mediterranean operations in 1943, there would have been 63 divisions available in Britain for an assault scheduled for sometime between June 1st and June 8th. Those divisions would have included 19 British, 5 Canadian, 1 Polish, 1 mixed (Belgians, French, Czechs, Dutch) and 37 American, with 5 new US divisions available every month. Rommel's defenses on the Normandy coast would not yet be in place, and the number of German forces opposing them would be minimal, as the bulk of their army was deep in Russia, with the front line running from Leningrad south to the Black Sea. The landing craft used for the Sicily / Italy invasions would be ready and available in the UK.
So, for the sake of argument, let's say the Allies, with nearly 3/4 of a million troops available, invade France the first week of June 1943. With minimal resistance, they quickly establish beacheads and rapidly begin their push inland. According to the scenario, they clear out France and the Low Countries, and push into Germany and into Berlin itself within a year. In the meantime, they also smash into Austria and take Vienna, and push into occupied Czechoslovakia and capture Prague.
With Hitler pulling trroops from the Eastern front to confront the onslaught in the west, the Soviets move further west themselves and get to the Polish border, and maybe as far as Warsaw before the ends.
The war therefore ends in May 1944 with the Allies in control of all of Germany, Austria, Czechoslovakia, maybe Hungary and perhaps part of Poland. Soviet territorial acquisition is decidedly less than it was in OTL, as is their sphere of influence.
But...
With all this going on in Europe, in May 44 the US forces in the Pacific are still along way from victory. Nimitz is still a month away from the Caroline Islands assault, and MacArthur's forces are still bogged down in New Guinea and the Bismarck Archipelago.
So does Stalin, perhaps stung by the Allied victory on the continent, take a look towards the Pacific, see an opening , and proceed to send his ever-increasing and battle hardened armies east? Could he have launched his "second front" agains the Japanese in Manchuria a year earlier? And, with US forces not even close to the Philippines, much less the Japanese home islands, would he have taken advantage of the US absence and taken all of Korea, the Kurile islands, and at leat Hokkaido? It's not hard to see him supporting Mao's armies in China, against not only the Japanese but against Chiang's forces as well. Then, instead of an Iron Curtain across Europe, there is a Bamboo Curtain extending into the Pacific encompassing Japan.
So, for the sake of argument, let's say the Allies, with nearly 3/4 of a million troops available, invade France the first week of June 1943. With minimal resistance, they quickly establish beacheads and rapidly begin their push inland. According to the scenario, they clear out France and the Low Countries, and push into Germany and into Berlin itself within a year. In the meantime, they also smash into Austria and take Vienna, and push into occupied Czechoslovakia and capture Prague.
With Hitler pulling trroops from the Eastern front to confront the onslaught in the west, the Soviets move further west themselves and get to the Polish border, and maybe as far as Warsaw before the ends.
The war therefore ends in May 1944 with the Allies in control of all of Germany, Austria, Czechoslovakia, maybe Hungary and perhaps part of Poland. Soviet territorial acquisition is decidedly less than it was in OTL, as is their sphere of influence.
But...
With all this going on in Europe, in May 44 the US forces in the Pacific are still along way from victory. Nimitz is still a month away from the Caroline Islands assault, and MacArthur's forces are still bogged down in New Guinea and the Bismarck Archipelago.
So does Stalin, perhaps stung by the Allied victory on the continent, take a look towards the Pacific, see an opening , and proceed to send his ever-increasing and battle hardened armies east? Could he have launched his "second front" agains the Japanese in Manchuria a year earlier? And, with US forces not even close to the Philippines, much less the Japanese home islands, would he have taken advantage of the US absence and taken all of Korea, the Kurile islands, and at leat Hokkaido? It's not hard to see him supporting Mao's armies in China, against not only the Japanese but against Chiang's forces as well. Then, instead of an Iron Curtain across Europe, there is a Bamboo Curtain extending into the Pacific encompassing Japan.