Were there a lot of black churches in the 18c? My impression is that there were strict rules requiring black congregations to have white preachers until after the end of slavery.
Were there a lot of black churches in the 18c? My impression is that there were strict rules requiring black congregations to have white preachers until after the end of slavery.
Most likely, mixing would just eliminate the ethnic distinction within a few generations. In 1500, Lisbon was 10% black. Those blacks largely did not go elsewhere - they were slaves, but they were manumitted rather than shipped to the colonies, and eventually assimilated. Once in a while you read about some historic figure who had black ancestry because of that and later Early Modern black migration waves into Europe (I think Pushkin was like 1/4 black).
And abolition in the early 1700s would mean 60 or 70 less years of slaves imported, plus their descendants not being in the US. Less slavery would also mean higher wages for free labour, meaning more (white) immigrants to the south. We will likely have a US that is 90%+ white identity in the 1800s.
But the black population was already 16.6% in 1740. The big increase was in the decades around 1700; in the mid-18c, there was still an increase, to a peak of 21.4% in 1770, but then there was steady decline. It wasn't even a matter of white immigration diluting black slaves - slavery just increased mortality rates. Without any significant black migration, and with a very large amount of non-black migration, the US black population is the same percentage of the population today that it was in 1870, purely because of rebound in birth rates.
Definitively better. One of the primary reasons for the Civil Rights Movement in the US was that enough generations had passed since slavery that there was a large black middle class that wanted what the whites had. In Du Bois's day it wasn't yet a talented tenth but more like a talented few percent; by the 1950s, there were lawyers and preachers and doctors and teachers.
That said, details depend on why slavery was abolished in the ATL. Abolition due to British victory in the Rebellion of 1776 is probably the likeliest, but that would lead to white American animosity toward blacks; blacks might even receive preferential treatment as a favored minority whose status depends on the colonial power, much like Tamils in Sri Lanka, Tutsis in Rwanda and Burundi, etc. But if anti-British animosity dies down and the Americans resume perceiving themselves as British North Americans, then race relations are likely to be very positive. Race relations with indigenous people are likely to be positive as well: not only was the US more genocidal toward indigenous people than the UK and Canada, but also the stuff that Canada did to indigenous people often came out of a desire to compete with the US for the Wild West.
Oh jeez, "Canada treats minorities better". No they didn't and no they don't. Ask the Chinese during the 19th and early 20th, the Japanese around WWII, the immigratin policy of Canada has always been more strict and racist than the US. There's plenty of Black stereotyping today, racism, and such; but when you're only 3% of the entire nation, and a small nation at that, then the racism isn't as noticeable. There are more Jews in the US than there are Blacks in Canada. How Canada treats their minorities compared to the US is not comparing apples to oranges, it's comparing potatoes to sheep.
.......you lost me right at the end.
I was saying that comparing the US and Canada regarding race relations is not comparing apples to apples, and that in fact you can't even say apples to oranges because that's still not a fair comparison. In reality it's like comparing fruit to an animal. Does that make more sense? I'm bad at analogies.