Political Solution to the American War of Independence/Dominion Colonialism

There's an awful lot of "Great Man" theory going on here, and with all due respect, that pretty much has been supplanted since Herbert Spencer et al...

Yet the USA is the result of a great man. Without George Washington there may well have been a successful rebellion and the breakaway of the 13 colonies. However the result would not be much like the OTL USA.
He was one of the luckiest military leaders in history. If we Brits had had one that lucky the rebellion wouldn't have lasted beyond 1776! (I'm not knocking his luck by the way paraphrasing Napoleon; a lucky general is more useful than an able one(although being both is even better!))
 
At risk of entering a debate which I have very little desire to enter… I'd just like to make a little nitpick. The Dominion of New England was not exactly the sort of thing that one might wish to imitate to make the Americans happy; it was utterly unlike a 'Dominion' in the Canadian sense. It was a deeply unpopular, autocratic creation of King James II in his wish to establish greater personal control over several colonies (which is very much contrary to the time of George III, as anyone with the faintest knowledge beyond merely regurgitating revolutionary-era propaganda about an evil tyrant king—and I'd certainly put myself in the 'faintest knowledge' category there—would know; it was a matter of parliamentary control which George III then put himself behind, rejecting the wishes of the rebels who said that they were loyal to the King and hostile only to Parliament and even developed legal theory to support this principle, to do with the mechanics of the Acts of Union). It was thoroughly artificial, a great leap forward in democracy (in the Maoist sense—i.e. a great leap backward) and widely despised by the inhabitants, which is why, as soon as the Glorious Revolution got James II out of the way, the New Englanders immediately got rid of it, professing loyalty to the revolutionary regime in Great Britain as an excuse.

Yep.

The 'political solution' to the American colonies is to just let things keep going as they already were. The colonists were happy with the way things were in 1750 and there is no reason for them to significantly want to change things on a broad, social scale. It was the arrogance of the Imperial government in London after the victory over the French that set the ball rolling. A more ambiguous ending to the 7 Years War could easily produce a British government that is willing to see the light of compromise.
 
Yep.

The 'political solution' to the American colonies is to just let things keep going as they already were. The colonists were happy with the way things were in 1750 and there is no reason for them to significantly want to change things on a broad, social scale. It was the arrogance of the Imperial government in London after the victory over the French that set the ball rolling. A more ambiguous ending to the 7 Years War could easily produce a British government that is willing to see the light of compromise.

Indeed. And then whether it went one way or another would depend on who was in power in London in time. Although it's worth bearing in mind that parliament became more Whiggish as time went on. By the point you get to Pitt the Younger, the Whigs had become so dominant that Whigs like him were called Tories just to differentiate between the different Whigs.
 
Yet the USA is the result of a great man. Without George Washington there may well have been a successful rebellion and the breakaway of the 13 colonies. However the result would not be much like the OTL USA.
He was one of the luckiest military leaders in history. If we Brits had had one that lucky the rebellion wouldn't have lasted beyond 1776! (I'm not knocking his luck by the way paraphrasing Napoleon; a lucky general is more useful than an able one(although being both is even better!))

And I wasn't even proposing a great man theory. I mentioned a whole host of factions in the British parliament who could have changed things. History is a combination of long term forces and historical accidents. You have to laugh at the people that always insist OTL was inevitable.
 

TFSmith121

Banned
No such thing as luck; chance? Sure ... but that always

Yet the USA is the result of a great man. Without George Washington there may well have been a successful rebellion and the breakaway of the 13 colonies. However the result would not be much like the OTL USA.
He was one of the luckiest military leaders in history. If we Brits had had one that lucky the rebellion wouldn't have lasted beyond 1776! (I'm not knocking his luck by the way paraphrasing Napoleon; a lucky general is more useful than an able one(although being both is even better!))

No such thing as luck; chance? Sure ... but that always cuts both ways.

Successful military commanders make their own luck, after all.

And as impressive an individual as Washington was, there were others who could have done much of what he did - Greene certainly comes to mind, and there were others.

Best,
 

TFSmith121

Banned
Certainly, but there was a reality that led to the decisions

Yep.

The 'political solution' to the American colonies is to just let things keep going as they already were. The colonists were happy with the way things were in 1750 and there is no reason for them to significantly want to change things on a broad, social scale. It was the arrogance of the Imperial government in London after the victory over the French that set the ball rolling. A more ambiguous ending to the 7 Years War could easily produce a British government that is willing to see the light of compromise.

Certainly, but there was a reality that led to the decisions the British made between 1750 and 1775 in North America, and the liklihood that the end of the Anglo-French (Franco-British) rivalry over the continent would a) end other than it did, given the respective size of each nation's "daughter" colonies in North America, and b) the British powers-that-be would, upon resolution of the contest with the French, go against more than a century of centralizing movement in Britain and "devolve" any significant amount of political power (once the French were beaten, of course) to the colonies is vanishingly small...

There was money to be made, after all.

Best,
 

TFSmith121

Banned
Your post was not the one that prompted

And I wasn't even proposing a great man theory. I mentioned a whole host of factions in the British parliament who could have changed things. History is a combination of long term forces and historical accidents. You have to laugh at the people that always insist OTL was inevitable.

Your post was not the one that prompted the "Great Man" comment, but along those lines, there are ALWAYS a host of factions in various legislatures that "could" change things ... and yet they rarely if ever do.

Certainly not if those calling the tune, with cash or otherwise, do not wish them to do so...

Your point on long term forces is one I agree with, obviously, so given the long-term forces that had moved the interests of London, specifically, and England, generally, to the center of politics in the British Empire, how much would have to change - in less than two decades, essentially - for anything approximating responsible government to have come about for the Thirteen Colonies?

One would expect quite a bit, actually, given the various English oxen being gored, otherwise...

Best,
 

TFSmith121

Banned
Given that it was never even formally presented in London,

What about Ben Franklin and the idea of a dominion he presented at Albany?

Given that it was never even formally presented in London, seems pretty clear there was no support. It also predated the final war with the French, and even if it had gone forward, the unofficial response from England was that the issue was a unified military command, not a civil government under what would have amounted to a viceroy appointed by London.

http://avalon.law.yale.edu/18th_century/albany.asp

Best,
 
Why is it so unlikely that the French would have survived in North America? Of course I'm well aware of the vast population imbalance and the difference in manner of colonisation that caused it, but wars between colonists in North America in this era were also larger wars between their colonial masters in Europe and across the world. If New France held for long enough and France had better luck against Great Britain in naval battles in the Seven Years' War and managed a landing in Great Britain, France will have a strong hand in forcing Great Britain to accept its terms—which may well include French maintenance of the status quo, or even territorial gains, in North America. In the environment of a powerful France that still poses a huge threat, a France allied to feared and hated Native Americans to boot, are the British colonists in North America going to reject the terms of the peace treaty and rebel against Great Britain that has accepted it, thus making themselves alone against that French threat? I'd very much doubt it, in the 1750s. In that case, coupled with further French migration (the French government did understand the degree of the imbalance they were facing, to the point that they regarded even a mainteance of the status quo as a victory, so it's not unreasonable to suppose that they might have tried to change policy in accordance with realisation), we could quite possibly see a British America under heavy threat from France, closely tied to Great Britain and restricted to the east coast by the French threat.

I think the OTL outcome is more likely, but I doubt your assertion that British America was destined even from the 1750s to become an independent nation and a superpower. From the end of the Seven Years' War? That's far more defensible, though I'd still doubt that the unification of the British colonies in North America is inevitable from 1763. From before 1754? I don't think so.
 
Except that the statement "The problem is that you got two hardline governments in a row into power" would seem to preclude the accomodationists, would it not?

All you need is a different king. Fredrick was a Whig and would have continued Whig governance if he had lived.
 
Yep.

The 'political solution' to the American colonies is to just let things keep going as they already were. The colonists were happy with the way things were in 1750 and there is no reason for them to significantly want to change things on a broad, social scale. It was the arrogance of the Imperial government in London after the victory over the French that set the ball rolling. A more ambiguous ending to the 7 Years War could easily produce a British government that is willing to see the light of compromise.

Things don't have to stay the same, they just have to cater to the colonial elite. Taxes will be fine if you open up the west to settlement (land speculation) and send in the army to crush the natives. Pitt and his faction was totally on board with that.

I suggest reading

http://www.amazon.com/Three-Victories-Defeat-British-Empire/dp/0465013325
 

Faeelin

Banned
Chatham: Should have been conciliatory but PM was sidelined with gout. The hardline Townshend exercised power instead.
Grafton: Conciliatory. Collapsed due to an unrelated foreign policy issue.
North: Very hardline. Led to the war.
Rockingham: Highly conciliatory. Ended the war on benign terms.

This is not evidence of an inevitably hardline British government who would never tolerate anything but the exploitation of America.

Mmm. if you look at this way, I think you have a point. But North was in power for much longer than the other guys, and he had the strong backing of the king (who refused to consider American efforts at peace, such as the Olive Branch petition).

I've become much more skeptical of an accomodation between the colonies and Britain during the period after looking at Britain's foreign policy. There was no idea of give and take, and the notion that you should support an ally in return for favors down the line seemed to be anathema to Britain. With that sort of attitude, it's hard to see the British making concessions to America.
 

TFSmith121

Banned
Lot of "ifs" don't you think?

Why is it so unlikely that the French would have survived in North America? Of course I'm well aware of the vast population imbalance and the difference in manner of colonisation that caused it, but wars between colonists in North America in this era were also larger wars between their colonial masters in Europe and across the world. If New France held for long enough and France had better luck against Great Britain in naval battles in the Seven Years' War and managed a landing in Great Britain, France will have a strong hand in forcing Great Britain to accept its terms—which may well include French maintenance of the status quo, or even territorial gains, in North America. In the environment of a powerful France that still poses a huge threat, a France allied to feared and hated Native Americans to boot, are the British colonists in North America going to reject the terms of the peace treaty and rebel against Great Britain that has accepted it, thus making themselves alone against that French threat? I'd very much doubt it, in the 1750s. In that case, coupled with further French migration (the French government did understand the degree of the imbalance they were facing, to the point that they regarded even a mainteance of the status quo as a victory, so it's not unreasonable to suppose that they might have tried to change policy in accordance with realisation), we could quite possibly see a British America under heavy threat from France, closely tied to Great Britain and restricted to the east coast by the French threat.

I think the OTL outcome is more likely, but I doubt your assertion that British America was destined even from the 1750s to become an independent nation and a superpower. From the end of the Seven Years' War? That's far more defensible, though I'd still doubt that the unification of the British colonies in North America is inevitable from 1763. From before 1754? I don't think so.

Lot of "ifs" don't you think?

Look, as significant as the deployment of "European" troops (or the lack thereof, in some conflicts) was to the ultimate collapse(s) of the European empires in the Western Hemisphere was, the foundational question of which "settler" society (English-, French- or Spanish-speaking) was going to dominate the continent was going to turn on population in North America, and the basis for that was who ended up in charge of the termperate Atlantic coastal zone (call it New Hampshire to Georgia); the answer is self-evident.

Best,
 

TFSmith121

Banned
You really see the British (English) elite giving up political

All you need is a different king. Fredrick was a Whig and would have continued Whig governance if he had lived.

You really see the British (English) elite giving up political power willingly in the mid-to-late 1700s?

I just don't see it; as Faeelin said above:

There was no idea of give and take, and the notion that you should support an ally in return for favors down the line seemed to be anathema to Britain. With that sort of attitude, it's hard to see the British making concessions to America.

If they had, I'd expect they would find willing partners in the colonies, but to suggest what came from a century, roughly, of (often) bloody political experience dating back to the Stuarts would be set aside because of any individual seems very unlikely.

Best,
 
Last edited:
Your post was not the one that prompted the "Great Man" comment, but along those lines, there are ALWAYS a host of factions in various legislatures that "could" change things ... and yet they rarely if ever do.

Certainly not if those calling the tune, with cash or otherwise, do not wish them to do so...

Your point on long term forces is one I agree with, obviously, so given the long-term forces that had moved the interests of London, specifically, and England, generally, to the center of politics in the British Empire, how much would have to change - in less than two decades, essentially - for anything approximating responsible government to have come about for the Thirteen Colonies?

One would expect quite a bit, actually, given the various English oxen being gored, otherwise...

Best,

Plenty of factions in various legislatures have changed things throughout history. Eurosceptics caused John Major to get a Eurozone opt-out, for instance - something with huge knock on effects to history.

Regarding your last question, the thirteen colonies already had something approximating responsible government in practice. It's called benign neglect. It was Grenville and Townhend that attempted to change that (although at least the former backed off.)
 
Mmm. if you look at this way, I think you have a point. But North was in power for much longer than the other guys, and he had the strong backing of the king (who refused to consider American efforts at peace, such as the Olive Branch petition).

I've become much more skeptical of an accomodation between the colonies and Britain during the period after looking at Britain's foreign policy. There was no idea of give and take, and the notion that you should support an ally in return for favors down the line seemed to be anathema to Britain. With that sort of attitude, it's hard to see the British making concessions to America.

North was only in power so long because the war had started. There was generally a principle of rallying round the government during war.

I agree that the King is an obstacle here, but this is Britain, not somewhere like France or Austria. During this period, it was a brief time of royal resurgence because the King's Friends took over the reins of patronage from the Pelhams after George III came to power. However, combatting this was the increasing independence of parliament as it moved in a much more Whiggish, anti-royal power direction. The combined effect of these two contrasting movements was that the King's party became more important, but was just one of several competing factions and lost power again in time.

It was just unfortunate that this coincided with the American debate. If George III had come to power later, or if he had fallen off a horse, or if he had a different tutor, or if there was a falling out in his inner circle, power would have remained with the Pelhams. That would mean the Duke of Newcastle as Prime Minister, who was conciliatory (and also believed in not selling out Prussia, to your point!), and he would likely have been followed by Rockingham, who was his protege, after his death.
 
Lot of "ifs" don't you think?

Two of them: New France holding to some degree for long enough that France isn't totally expelled from North America by the time the war ends in Europe, and France winning one of the various naval battles which it could have won IOTL if it had had better luck on the day. That doesn't strike me as enormously implausible, especially if we alter the situation on the Continent (Frederick the Great was pretty lucky too) to make things there go less well for the British, so they're able to do.

It doesn't have to be the Seven Years' War either; that was just the latest Anglo-French war where the French had a significant presence in North America. We could go earlier; indeed, the earlier we go, the lower the existing population imbalance, the more plausible it is for an Anglo-French colonial conflict to go the other way.

Look, as significant as the deployment of "European" troops (or the lack thereof, in some conflicts) was to the ultimate collapse(s) of the European empires in the Western Hemisphere was, the foundational question of which "settler" society (English-, French- or Spanish-speaking) was going to dominate the continent was going to turn on population in North America, and the basis for that was who ended up in charge of the termperate Atlantic coastal zone (call it New Hampshire to Georgia); the answer is self-evident.

Best,

I am unconvinced that the British settler population advantage was as decisive by the 1750s as you are saying it is. A victorious France and a later more populated New France, coupled with French-backed and French-armed Native Americans gradually becoming more adept vis-à-vis European settlers, may keep the British settlers confined to the east coast, especially by political pressure on Great Britain via victories in Europe; before the American Revolutionary War, British America (as it then was) was not a state of its own which could wage war against other European colonies unaffected by the success or failure of its colonial master. That would still probably leave the Anglo-Americans (presuming that they are united) as the most populous and richest state in North America, but not necessarily dominating that continent as they do today.

And the Seven Years' War is the latest possible choice, with the highest imbalance; the earlier the war we pick, the weaker the English/later British position relative to its European rivals was, the easier it is to imagine the English/later British hold in North America being weakened or even expunged entirely like the Dutch hold.

I presume you wouldn't say that the 1590s English hold in North America was destined for domination of that continent, though you say that the 1750s British hold in North America was. I'd be interested to see where you would draw the cut-off point.
 
the earlier the war we pick, the weaker the English/later British position relative to its European rivals was

Having said that, the alliances were stacked in London's favour better before the 7YW. In the War of the Spanish succession, she had Prussia, the Netherlands, Austria and Portugal on her side. In the War of the Austrian succession, she had Portugal, the Netherlands, Austria and Russia. The 7YW had just Prussia and Portugal. By the mid 1760s, she had just Portugal.
 

TFSmith121

Banned
Statscan says New France had 70,000 people in 1760;

Two of them: New France holding to some degree for long enough that France isn't totally expelled from North America by the time the war ends in Europe, and France winning one of the various naval battles which it could have won IOTL if it had had better luck on the day. That doesn't strike me as enormously implausible, especially if we alter the situation on the Continent (Frederick the Great was pretty lucky too) to make things there go less well for the British, so they're able to do.

It doesn't have to be the Seven Years' War either; that was just the latest Anglo-French war where the French had a significant presence in North America. We could go earlier; indeed, the earlier we go, the lower the existing population imbalance, the more plausible it is for an Anglo-French colonial conflict to go the other way.



I am unconvinced that the British settler population advantage was as decisive by the 1750s as you are saying it is. A victorious France and a later more populated New France, coupled with French-backed and French-armed Native Americans gradually becoming more adept vis-à-vis European settlers, may keep the British settlers confined to the east coast, especially by political pressure on Great Britain via victories in Europe; before the American Revolutionary War, British America (as it then was) was not a state of its own which could wage war against other European colonies unaffected by the success or failure of its colonial master. That would still probably leave the Anglo-Americans (presuming that they are united) as the most populous and richest state in North America, but not necessarily dominating that continent as they do today.

And the Seven Years' War is the latest possible choice, with the highest imbalance; the earlier the war we pick, the weaker the English/later British position relative to its European rivals was, the easier it is to imagine the English/later British hold in North America being weakened or even expunged entirely like the Dutch hold.

I presume you wouldn't say that the 1590s English hold in North America was destined for domination of that continent, though you say that the 1750s British hold in North America was. I'd be interested to see where you would draw the cut-off point.

Statscan says New France had 70,000 people in 1760; the equivalent in the 13 colonies was 1.5 million.

In 1700, the numbers were something like 250,000 in the Anglophone colonies; there more people in the Anglophone colonies (75,000) in 1660 than there were in the Francophone population a century later.

As far as the cut off point, it gets pretty misty much before 1650, but basically, it came down to which European power ended up with the mid-Atlantic littoral, and that's England/Britain from the beginning of the Seventeenth Century. It is certainly not the French, true?

So, in terms of a POD, sometime between 1600-1650, I'd guess - whoever end up with Massachusetts Bay, Long Island Sound, New York Bay and the Hudson, the country south to the Delaware, and the country from the Delaware south to the Chesapeake and then into the south from there is situated to take control of the continent, absent pandemics, asteroid strikes, and the like.

Best,
 
Top