how could it be possible for there to be as many french in north america in 1750 as british?
During his teen years, Louis XIV get a protestant mistress, briefly. The separate due to court pressure, but he still remembers her foundly.
Just before edit of Fontainebleau, she is smuggled in court and appeal to him. He grants her a private interview in which she reveals the Truth about how protestant are treated in his name.
Louis is Furious, but he has already annonced publicly he will make France protestant free and doesn't want to loose face by backing down.
So, this ATL edit of Fontainebleau gives the protestant 10 years to go to Canada ( which is the only place they are allowed to go ).
Can you spell exodus.... ( as in 2 million french protestant in Canada by 1700 )
End result : after a couple century, most of North America speaks french ( but is definitely not governed by Paris )
well I wouldn't go that far of course..many would go... but Prussia, the Netherlands and England are still much closer and have their own appeal. Perhaps somewhat more than those that went to the English colonies so maybe add those that went to the Cape as well as its that much closer.
Does anyone know where that can be determined.