This.Tbh medieval royals didn't care so much about titles and styles as modern or early modern royals. Margaret and Edward's children would likely be referred to in chronicles and account books as Lord/Lady *insert first name here* until they're given a title of their own (for the boys) or married (for the girls). In fact Edward I was known simply as Lord Edward prior to his father's death. They may also be referred to as *insert first name* of *insert birthplace* like how Edward II was known as Edward of Carnarvon or his sisters were called Elizabeth of Rhuddlan, Joan of Acre, and Mary of Waltham, or as *insert first name*, son/daughter of the King of England.
Ah your first period is such a strange time. I literally didn't realise I had it even though my mother explained it THOROUGHLY until two days after it began, I went to my mom and said "Mom... something is happening" and she was like 'MY BABY GIRL IS A WOMAN"Great chapter! I love how you humanize the girls with the mention of 'flowering' and them not knowing what it meant. Also, as a fellow woman, my dearest condolences to Elsbeth, lol. I hope Margaret at least exchanges a decent amount of letters with her little sibling; they at least can try to bond that way. And she can certainly send some nice presents their way!
Lmao I was too chickenshit to tell my mom when it happened (tbf I was also older, 15 to be exact, so I knew what was going on)Ah your first period is such a strange time. I literally didn't realise I had it even though my mother explained it THOROUGHLY until two days after it began, I went to my mom and said "Mom... something is happening" and she was like 'MY BABY GIRL IS A WOMAN"
I was 12 and in my father's house for his weekend (yay divorce!) but I kept quiet until I got home on sunday night.I was home alone with my older brother...... and also nine. It was not a good time
I am well aware of that. I said it as an example of how the queen could just dump titles on her kids. Couldn’t be bothered to do research on what potential unused titles her kids could have.I didn't read this part. First, Rothesay is a Stewart invention, because Rothesay is part of their lands, so Margaret would need a different title for her own heir.
Depends.Appelations are always quite informal. Charles of Anjou, Charles of Valois etc were all born sons of the mainline Capetian kings. They were known as of Anjou, of Valois for example because of their title, not where they were born or who their father was.Second, that's a duke's titles. A title doesn't erase your names. Sort of like how Édouard is Prince of Wales, but he is also Edward of England. Or William being still considered a Prince of the UK, since his dad is the king. That's a title, not an appelation. They would still have the appelation 'of Wales/of England' added on to their own titles.
That is true.For example, William IV of the UK was Duke of Clarence, but he was William Henry of Great Britain and Ireland when he was born because you don't get titles the minute you leave your mother's womb . They want to see if you will live first.. And William's children, all of whom are illegitimate, were known as Fitzclarence for example rather than Fitzroy because they weren't the children of the king (which is what fitzroy means) but the children of the duke of clarence. Edouard, if he has any children now, they will be referred to as Fitzwales rather than anything else.
And the girls won't get titles of their own, so they still need an appelation. Margaret and Edouard's daughters won't be duchesses of albany, cambridge, ross, or whatever, even if they have no younger brothers.
I am well aware of that and? The issue was that none of these grandchildren has a mother who was a monarch in her own right. Better example is how her own children was actually called.Charlotte of Wales is known as Princess Charlotte of Wales because her dad wasn't king of england yet while she lived and she was already born in a time where a monarch's grandchildren in the male-line are treated as Princes and Princesses of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland, which is not the same situation in our time. See the daughter of Prince Leopold, Queen Victoria's fourth son. Legally, she was a princess of the uk, but she was called by her father's titles. Queen Victoria's children and Queen Elizabeth's children were also born in a time where the law was that the monarch's children and grandchildren and great-grandchildren were princes and princess of the uk (in the male-line for grandchildren and below) so that's why they changed their name.
Because their dad was already king the moment they were born? The ambiguity here is what if their dad wasn’t king until much later?Contemporaries like the Navarrese showed that it’s either the House name or the queen’s kingdom.BTW, it seems that the kids of Queen Urraca of Leon/Castile were called of [insert kingdom] as well instead of after their father’s title(like of Galicia) or their father’s house(of Burgundy).Edward's children don't have the same idea. There is no legal precendence for a child of a monarch of Scotland who is also a male-line grandchild of the King of England. NONE. So I get to invent it. And I'm going through the contemporary (of the 1200s) image that it was the father's name. Why aren't Queen Jeanne's children referred to as 'of France and Navarre'? Because that's their dad's title.
It's very rare that a regnant queen doesn't marry a king. As in, at the time that they are wed, he is already a king. The only image I have is Ferdinand and the children they had before his dad died were referred to as 'of Aragon' which Isabella pointed out is a common practice in his family rather than the title 'of Sicily' since that's his own title.
Of Scotland would be a fine appellation too.Same with birth places.You do what you want, all I am saying is that using their mother’s title as the basis for their appellation isn’t actually something that wasn’t done when the father was of a lower rank personally when the kids are born.I am aware that they probably should be referred to by "of England" rather than "of Wales", but I'm also writing a story where a lot of characters have the same name, so anyway I can get to differentiate them, I'm taking it. Or do you really think Édouard's daughters won't have the same names as his sisters?
Prince Albert frequently referred to himself as Duke of Saxony. I am well aware of the fact that he is of the Saxe-Coburg and Gotha branch, and his brother/father is formally title Duke of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha. Not sure if the title of Duke of Saxony is something like Archduke of Austria where all cadets get to use.IIRC, the guy once had a rant to Queen Victoria about how being the ‘Duke of Saxony’ was better than being the Duke of Norfolk etc or something after being snubbed by the British peers.Well, beginning with Saxony... It's isn't Saxony itself, it's Saxe-Coburg and Gotha, which is a branch of the Saxon ruling family. Second, I just went to search the children of Queen Maria II to see if in the Portuguese wikipedia, they are referred to as of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha, but they actually don't seem to even be a part of the Saxon dynasty. All of them seem to belong to House of Braganza (https://pt.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pedro_V_de_Portugal). This idea of a mother's family name being inherited by a royal child is quite a recent invention and I think the first to do so was actually Maria Theresa in the 1700s with her children.
It’s not a last name in the sense we use right now.Like you have royals called of Gaunt, of Woodstock,of Bordeaux etc. There was much informality around it.It also changes depending on the perception and rise in one’s station.I really doubt people would be calling Richard of Bordeaux anything other than Richard of England after he acceded to the throne for example.Also in the 1200s, it very much is a last name the Of XYZ. Why do you think so many people don't know for example that Catherine of Aragon's actual last name was Trastamara (I'm not talking about the nerds in this site) or that Anne of Cleves' name is La Marck.
There you go, we came to the same conclusion.Also I think FalconHonour was using the example that royalty uses their father's title as a last name (the of Cambridge, of Wales, of Cornwall), since George was known in his primary school as George Cambridge and Queen Beatrix of the Netherlands was known as Trixie Orange when she studied as a child in Canada. Beyond that, it is also to show that they can indeed change (why Louis, Charlotte and George changed appelations three times in one day) and it isn't set in stone just because they were born when their father was Duke of Cambridge. So I shouldn't feel restricted to the term 'of Wales' just because that's what they were using when they were born. Philippa of Lancaster, for example, daughter of Henry IV, can also be referred to as Philippa of England after her dad became king.
Okay.So Falcon (who was the only one mentioning the prince of wales' children aka not a lot of folks) wasn't telling me to follow the example of Prince William. She was just mentioning the fact that royalty does it and that it can change to fit the most recent situation, ergo the examples are still invalid.
Also, also, in my conversation with VV, he very much said they would probably use the term of England or wherever they happen to be born. I just said otherwise, because I actually prefer the term of Wales and he isn't here to defend himself rip
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Could someone (knowledgeable about said OTL war) give a brief summary on what’s changed so far (in this respect)?It's based on the Anglo-French war of 1294. But some details have been changed.
OTL was far messier.Instead of Edward I marrying Constance of Aragon, and betrothing his daughter to Louis, he ‘married’ Blanche of France instead, with the same condition of letting Philippe take control of Aquitaine for 40 days( I have no idea why this is actually a term).Instead of actually marrying Blanche of France to Edward as promised however, Philippe married Blanche of France to Rudolf I of Bohemia and kept Aquitaine.Eventually he ended up marrying Blanche’s younger sister as part of the peace.Edmund also died a bit later. The man died in the midst of personally leading English forces in Aquitaine. I think Edward I in this timeline was also able to better support the Flemish than otl.Could someone (knowledgeable about said OTL war) give a brief summary on what’s changed so far (in this respect)?
Its cause in 40 days you get the income tax for an entire month and the revenue for a month. Also 40 days is a good number in chriatianity.OTL was far messier.Instead of Edward I marrying Constance of Aragon, and betrothing his daughter to Louis, he ‘married’ Blanche of France instead, with the same condition of letting Philippe take control of Aquitaine for 40 days( I have no idea why this is actually a term).
It made little sense to just hand the entire duchy to him instead of just giving him the income.Plus not entirely sure what was the point IOTL when you are meant to be getting a dowry from Philip.Its cause in 40 days you get the income tax for an entire month and the revenue for a month. Also 40 days is a good number in chriatianity.
Cause you bowed down and gave it to him so Philip looks like the magnanimous kong and benevolent when he (supposedly) gives it back.It made little sense to just hand the entire duchy to him instead of just giving him the income.Plus not entirely sure what was the point IOTL when you are meant to be getting a dowry from Philip.
Also the name of Edward's second wife is Yolande. Constance is their daughter's name.OTL was far messier.Instead of Edward I marrying Constance of Aragon, and betrothing his daughter to Louis, he ‘married’ Blanche of France instead, with the same condition of letting Philippe take control of Aquitaine for 40 days( I have no idea why this is actually a term).Instead of actually marrying Blanche of France to Edward as promised however, Philippe married Blanche of France to Rudolf I of Bohemia and kept Aquitaine.Eventually he ended up marrying Blanche’s younger sister as part of the peace.Edmund also died a bit later. The man died in the midst of personally leading English forces in Aquitaine. I think Edward I in this timeline was also able to better support the Flemish than otl.
Would love to see Philip getting punished as the dishonourable cur that he was.
Was this actually a popular practise at the time? I feel like this was asking for treachery. I remember that my mind melted when I first read about the actual event in real life.That said, the scale of Philip’s treachery was shocking.Cause you bowed down and gave it to him so Philip looks like the magnanimous kong and benevolent when he (supposedly) gives it back.