DBWI: The Second Mexican American War Doesn't Happen?

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Mexico would be a lot bigger, since we did annex the Northern half

I can't believe people are not talking about Europe

Since it took more time for US Troops to get there, Paris fell to the Germans. Although the Allies shortly took it back, France asked for a peace.

Germany might have been punished by the Allies had they asked for a peace, but only after the Allies kick them out of France and look like they will invade Germany.

It might of butterflied WW2, I agree. A punitive peace would have humbled Germany and prevent their war-making capabilities from advancing to the point where they attacked the Soviet Union and France again simultaneously in 1939. They darn near almost won to if it were not for French bravery. Only when the French surrounded the main German pocket in Belgium did Britain enter the war. This forced Germany to withdraw forces from the gates of Moscow to prevent invasion of their homeland.
 
We are assuming the Mexican Army and government are stronger and more stable. A raid on one or more border towns, maybe San Diego with possible authorities will get the press and the public (in that order) behind not only an invasion but an occupation of the entire country.

A lot depends on who is president. If it is TR, he may not stop until all of the land till the canal is under US protection.

OOC Exactly.
 
There's stupid/suicidal (OTL Japan), and there's flat-out ASB influenced insanity.

Someone get this guy in touch with ISIS, remind them it is ASB to resist the US!

It's possible (albeit unlikely) that the Mexican government would invade the US. The idea that they would do so repeatedly makes no sense.

Already in TL bro.

1. That doesn't make any sense. The US couldn't afford to keep up an occupation on a country that large for 30 years.
Largest econoym in the world, sure they can.

2. That makes even less sense. Why would the US go out of its way to antagonize the Mexicans by installing a government that speaks a foreign language?

Why did the British antagonize the Indians?

The US has controlled Puerto Rico for more than a century, and Spanish is still by far the dominant language there.
Very true, but it could have been part of avenging Mexican intransigence.

Gunboat diplomacy is much, much, easier and cheaper than occupying a country 1/4 the size of the Continental US.

None of those countries border the US nor invaded them ATL.
 
Someone get this guy in touch with ISIS, remind them it is ASB to resist the US!
Two completely different situations. Mexico "causing problems" for the US would either mean attacking the US (which is what I was referring to when I said "ASB-induced insanity") or being too unstable to stop Pancho Villa-style raids.

Already in TL bro.
I know bro. A Mexican invasion is the entire premise of this thread.

Largest econoym in the world, sure they can.
But it would be a massive drain on the economy for decades and decades. Even with a change in attitudes, why would the US be willing to fund something so costly when it would be easier to just take some territory in the north and call it a day?

Why did the British antagonize the Indians?
Because the British Empire revolved around India. Also there was no single "Indian" language that English replaced during the BEI or the Raj, and India wasn't a unified state before the British took control.

Very true, but it could have been part of avenging Mexican intransigence.
So to "punish" them, the US government would waste an absurd amount of money to give them a modern educational system and teach them English (even though the Mexican people would just keep using Spanish anyway)?

None of those countries border the US nor invaded them ATL.
Some of those countries were so close that they might as well have bordered the US. But much more importantly, those countries were very small. The combined land areas of Cuba, Haiti, Puerto Rico, the Dominican Republic, Guatemala, Nicaragua, and Panama don't even come close to the total size of Mexico. So they were much easier to manage.
 
...being too unstable to stop Pancho Villa-style raids.

Why don’t we just establish this as the explanation?

...when it would be easier to just take some territory in the north and call it a day?

Bingo.

Also there was no single "Indian" language that English replaced during the BEI or the Raj, and India wasn't a unified state before the British took control.

Even today if you’re in the south and ask someone a question in Hindi, they’ll reply in English...
 
Its an interesting thing to assume. What if the US came in time to save the Ententes ass in WWI.

It would be GErmany that gets a harsh peace (from all plans discovered later) While France and Britain did not get harsh terms they were forsome time unable to pay back the US loans. the seizing of collateral and the economic trobles started by not getting the unsecured loans back pushed the US into GErmanys arms in the 30. So even if the war of 1939-41 (some call it the second world war) seemed to turn against the Central European alliance (Germany Poland and the Austria-Hungarian sucessor nations) after initial sucess, the stopid Japanese attack on P-H in 1940 brought the US into the war against the Brits (they should have dropped the Anglo Japanese alliance in the 20s). With the US and Germany fighting side by side it makes me wonder why they took until December 6th in 1941 to Force the Ententes capitulation.

But given the intensive US/German/Chinese trade relations it was only a matter of time until the US intervened in the Second Sino Japanese war - and that puts the Brits against the US - it would not have needed Yamamotos Folly.
 
Its an interesting thing to assume. What if the US came in time to save the Ententes ass in WWI.

It would be GErmany that gets a harsh peace (from all plans discovered later) While France and Britain did not get harsh terms they were forsome time unable to pay back the US loans. the seizing of collateral and the economic trobles started by not getting the unsecured loans back pushed the US into GErmanys arms in the 30. So even if the war of 1939-41 (some call it the second world war) seemed to turn against the Central European alliance (Germany Poland and the Austria-Hungarian sucessor nations) after initial sucess, the stopid Japanese attack on P-H in 1940 brought the US into the war against the Brits (they should have dropped the Anglo Japanese alliance in the 20s). With the US and Germany fighting side by side it makes me wonder why they took until December 6th in 1941 to Force the Ententes capitulation.

OOC: It has already been previously established that Germany "attacked the Soviet Union and France again simultaneously in 1939" but "the French surrounded the main German pocket in Belgium." It is implied that this was a reversal of German fortunes, because the British entered onto the side of the Entente. You would have to make it that the US declared against the Detente, but my previous post says the Germans "darn near almost won to if it were not for French bravery" which implies they lost.
 
OOC: It has already been previously established that Germany "attacked the Soviet Union and France again simultaneously in 1939" but "the French surrounded the main German pocket in Belgium." It is implied that this was a reversal of German fortunes, because the British entered onto the side of the Entente. You would have to make it that the US declared against the Detente, but my previous post says the Germans "darn near almost won to if it were not for French bravery" which implies they lost.


OOC: my post does not contradict yours (initial sucesses then Brits and Germans pusshed back - if I understand correctly) but THEN afterwards the Japanese attacked the US which brought the US in - but as Japanese are allied with the Brits that makes the US allies (sort of) of Germany. And I established a reason why the US was estranged from the Entente.
 
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