What if Ferdinand Magellan won the Battle of Mactan and established a Spanish foothold in Asia four decades earlier than IOTL? What would be the political, cultural and economic consequences of this, and how significant could they be? Could it somehow affect things not only in Maphilindo, but also China and Japan, the latter of which is still in the middle of the Sengoku Jidai?
Consequences of an earlier Spanish Philippines + Spice Islands?
- Thread starter Vinization
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I should probably say that it would accelerate the Spanish colonization by forty-four years, given the six-year period (OTL 1565-71) that they've spent, but would Spain itself accept the possibility of accepting "protectorates" in some island-regions like Cebu?
IIRC that was Magellan's main objective.
Perhaps, as long as they're Christians?
Well, having almost half a century of advantage is clearly a big thing, maybe Spain gets Malaysia and modern Indonesia over the course of the century, and it would definitively conquer the Moslem Sultanates, this may end with a much stronger Philippines and a different society.
On the long run I do not know what would happen especifically, maybe this leads to Spain going into an Indian venture or goes to submit Japan into their sphere of influence, this maybe strengthen the commercial relationship between China and Spain or makes it bitter if China feels that Spain is a menace to her interests.
On the long run I do not know what would happen especifically, maybe this leads to Spain going into an Indian venture or goes to submit Japan into their sphere of influence, this maybe strengthen the commercial relationship between China and Spain or makes it bitter if China feels that Spain is a menace to her interests.
The only way the Spanish were able to conquer all of Luzon was politics due to Lakandula, I think in any other scenario the Spanish would keep Northern Luzon as a buffer with the Japanese which prevents Sakoku, the Spanish conquest of Luzon was one of the reasons why the Japanese had Sakoku.
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Could Nagasaki fall under Spanish influence? According to wikipedia the Portuguese only arrived in Japan in the 1540s.
Yes, it is possible, if the Spanish were able to make the Japanese more comfortable.