Some random internet wanderings have led me to a query, which may simply be rooted in my ignorance of early American electoral politics.
Anyway, my question is, what if the clause in Article 1 Section 9 of the constitution that says the slave trade can't be abolished for 20 years is changed to can't be abolished ever (in OTL the trade was abolished almost as soon as the clause expired) Is this doable without divine intervention? If so, what does this mean for the American economy and demographics? Does it push back the whole abolition movement? And what would be the effects of a still slave trading America and a moral crusading Royal Navy that was taking unilateral action to stop it?
Anyway, my question is, what if the clause in Article 1 Section 9 of the constitution that says the slave trade can't be abolished for 20 years is changed to can't be abolished ever (in OTL the trade was abolished almost as soon as the clause expired) Is this doable without divine intervention? If so, what does this mean for the American economy and demographics? Does it push back the whole abolition movement? And what would be the effects of a still slave trading America and a moral crusading Royal Navy that was taking unilateral action to stop it?