Rattenfänger von Memphis
Donor
In 1866, Bismarck made peace with Austria without annexations and without a victory parade in Vienna. By doing so he did not permanently estrange Austria and, within 13 years (1879), Bismarck was able to make a powerful alliance, OTL, between Germany and Austria instead of making Austria a permanent enemy.
What if Bismarck had been able to also treat defeated France in 1870-1871 as leniently as he was able to treat defeated Austria in 1866?
Bismarck also preferred a France that was a republic instead of an monarchy because he felt that a republic would be much less likely to attract allies in Europe than a monarchy. But what if France had remained a monarchy?
So I would like to posit 4 very possible, non-ASB changes to the post Franco-Prussian War of OTL which could have enabled Bismarck's "chessboard" to be fully played by all of the European powers. (Bismarck had written in 1860 "Who rules in France or Sardinia, once the Powers have been recognized, is absolutely unimportant to me, a matter of fact, not right or wrong...France would be of all possible allies the most questionable, although I must keep the possibility open, because one cannot play chess if 16 of the 64 squares are forbidden from the beginning.")
(1) The German Empire is not proclaimed in the Hall of Mirrors at Versailles at Paris but in the ancient Holy Roman Empire capital of Aachen (Aix-la-Chapelle).
(2) The new German Empire does not annex Alsace-Lorraine, which thereby remains French.
(3) France remains a monarchy due to a deal between the Legitimists and the Orleanists. The childless Legitimist Henri, count de Chambord, becomes King Henry V of France, ruling until 1883 when he is succeeded by the Orleanist Philippe d'Orleans, count of Paris, who becomes King Philip VII (1883-1894), when he is succeeded by his son King Philip VIII (1894-1926).
(4) Kaiser Wilhelm I dies in 1877 at the age of 80, instead of 1888, living 10 years longer than his father did but 11 years less than he did OTL. He is succeeded in 1877 by his son Frederick III who is married to Victoria, daughter of Queen Victoria of Great Britain.
So, in brief, how radically could this change history? Just some cursory observations... Frederick could dismiss Bismarck before he makes the OTL alliance with Austria. But would he dismiss Bismarck? Does Germany become more liberal? Would Germany and England become closer friends than in OTL?
France should have no compelling OTL revanchism against Germany over Alsace-Lorraine or suffering the humiliation of the proclamation of the new German Empire in her premier palace. Can Germany and France actually become possible allies rather than the permanent enemies that they were OTL?
Would Germany still ally with Austria? Would France still ally with Russia? How would a continuing French ownership of Alsace-Lorraine's industrial riches (virtually unknown in 1870-1871 but so important later) affect a balance of power between Germany and France?
Would there still be a German colonial empire?
What if Bismarck had been able to also treat defeated France in 1870-1871 as leniently as he was able to treat defeated Austria in 1866?
Bismarck also preferred a France that was a republic instead of an monarchy because he felt that a republic would be much less likely to attract allies in Europe than a monarchy. But what if France had remained a monarchy?
So I would like to posit 4 very possible, non-ASB changes to the post Franco-Prussian War of OTL which could have enabled Bismarck's "chessboard" to be fully played by all of the European powers. (Bismarck had written in 1860 "Who rules in France or Sardinia, once the Powers have been recognized, is absolutely unimportant to me, a matter of fact, not right or wrong...France would be of all possible allies the most questionable, although I must keep the possibility open, because one cannot play chess if 16 of the 64 squares are forbidden from the beginning.")
(1) The German Empire is not proclaimed in the Hall of Mirrors at Versailles at Paris but in the ancient Holy Roman Empire capital of Aachen (Aix-la-Chapelle).
(2) The new German Empire does not annex Alsace-Lorraine, which thereby remains French.
(3) France remains a monarchy due to a deal between the Legitimists and the Orleanists. The childless Legitimist Henri, count de Chambord, becomes King Henry V of France, ruling until 1883 when he is succeeded by the Orleanist Philippe d'Orleans, count of Paris, who becomes King Philip VII (1883-1894), when he is succeeded by his son King Philip VIII (1894-1926).
(4) Kaiser Wilhelm I dies in 1877 at the age of 80, instead of 1888, living 10 years longer than his father did but 11 years less than he did OTL. He is succeeded in 1877 by his son Frederick III who is married to Victoria, daughter of Queen Victoria of Great Britain.
So, in brief, how radically could this change history? Just some cursory observations... Frederick could dismiss Bismarck before he makes the OTL alliance with Austria. But would he dismiss Bismarck? Does Germany become more liberal? Would Germany and England become closer friends than in OTL?
France should have no compelling OTL revanchism against Germany over Alsace-Lorraine or suffering the humiliation of the proclamation of the new German Empire in her premier palace. Can Germany and France actually become possible allies rather than the permanent enemies that they were OTL?
Would Germany still ally with Austria? Would France still ally with Russia? How would a continuing French ownership of Alsace-Lorraine's industrial riches (virtually unknown in 1870-1871 but so important later) affect a balance of power between Germany and France?
Would there still be a German colonial empire?