If no WWII, when does India become independent ?

[skarosianlifeform]

If there's no war involving Britain in the 1940s (for whatever reason), when does India realistically become independent ?

And also, without WWII, does India become a single country ? Or will Pakistan still exist ?

 

[Monk78]

If there's no war involving Britain in the 1940s (for whatever reason), when does India realistically become independent ?

And also, without WWII, does India become a single country ? Or will Pakistan still exist ?

It will just takes a lot longer maybe like 1970s

 

[Comte de Geneve]

The Muslim league pre-dated WWII so the partition stands. Even without WWII the winds of change will blow and the burden of empire weigh heavily on GB. Congress and the League were strong and growing by the 40's. Independence and partition by 1955 at latest if not sooner, but hopefully not conducted like the fire drill it was in OTL.

 

[Peg Leg Pom]

No later than 1957.

 

[CanveyFanNumberOne]

I would say no later than 1960. However, this does depend on whether or not the narrator would still have the Japanese launch their Pacific attacks against Pearl Harbour followed by places like Hong Kong, Singapore and the Philippines. This constituted to a major reason why the partition happened when it did. I say this because prior to 1941, Western Europe had looked down upon East Asia as inferior to their more civilised nations. The IJA's successes up until Midway were able to change that and prove to the minorities of the European Colonies in East Asia that the Western Europeans were not invincible at all.

 

[David Flin]

Well, yes. British officials going out from WWI onwards were preparing for a handover and Indian independence. (Plain Tales from the Raj gives any number of quotes to that effect from between the wars). Essentially, those going out were looking forward to being the last, and leaving a functional, modern nation as their legacy.

 

[skarosianlifeform]

I would say no later than 1960. However, this does depend on whether or not the narrator would still have the Japanese launch their Pacific attacks against Pearl Harbour followed by places like Hong Kong, Singapore and the Philippines. This constituted to a major reason why the partition happened when it did. I say this because prior to 1941, Western Europe had looked down upon East Asia as inferior to their more civilised nations. The IJA's successes up until Midway were able to change that and prove to the minorities of the European Colonies in East Asia that the Western Europeans were not invincible at all.

No.
No Japanese attacks on South East Asia (as Japan only occupied Indochina after the Fall of France).

 

[CanveyFanNumberOne]

Oh Ok. However the independence movement won't be affected that much as even prior to December 1941 (in fact back before 1930 if I'm correct) then with leaders like Mahatma Gandhi it would still most likely be before 1960 (in my estimates Britain would be lucky to get to OTL's VJ-Day still in control of the Raj).

 

[Lalli]

Forces for decolonisation of India were really strong. Depends about POD but India probably would still become independent in 1950's. If Brits have luck perhaps to 1965 but no later.

Partition of India depends too about POD. If it is on early 1930's or earlier it can be avoided and India might remain unified.

 

[tallthinkev]

Move towards dominion status around 1945. Independent 1955, within the Commonwealth keeping the Queen as head of state. Total republic, if they want to, 1970. Have a federal India somewhat like Germany or Aus and not full on USA, should keep most happy, kind of.

 

[Awkwardvulture]

No.
No Japanese attacks on South East Asia (as Japan only occupied Indochina after the Fall of France).

Would they not have to do so eventually? Because if the US embargoes them per OTL where will Japan get it's oil?

 

[skarosianlifeform]

The USA embargoed oil because of the occupation of Indochina, which won't happen here (since it followed the Fall of France, which doesn't occur here).

Besides, they can still buy oil from the DEI (Netherlands not being at war wouldn't follow any embargo).

 

[N7Buck]

During the interwar and second world war, Indian provinces had a lot of autonomy, so it would be possible for Britain to play the provinces against each other, and India becomes independent in a balkanised form.

 

[Aghasverov]

Yeah... I'd say an equally good question would be not "when" but "how"... and damn near anything would've been better than what happened IOTL in 1947-48....