Opinions on the fall of France in 1940 are greatly divided. The two main camps, as far as I can see, are as follows:
Camp 1 holds that the fall of France was a pure fluke. Manstein's plan even being implemented and the Ardennes offensive happening at all were rather unlikely, and it was only Hitler overriding the general staff that it happened. The French discovering Germany's previous plan and it confirming their thoughts was lucky for Germany, as was France's slow response times. Had Manstein's plan not gone through, which seems more likely than OTL, the Germans would have lost in 1940 and been ground down by the Entente. Same with a bluntet sickle.
Camp 2 holds that the fall of France was mostly inevitable without a pre-war PoD. The German use of radios in their tanks gave them a huge advantage in communications, and their concentration of armor formations, as opposed to the allies mixing their armor in with the infantry, along with German use of air power to a greater degree than the allies, made victory much more likely than defeat. It might take longer, but it would probably happen.
My question is, how "should" WW2 in 1940 have gone? From a timeline writing perspective, OTL's fall of France would be laughed at as ASB in pretty much any timeline. Would it be more probable for Manstein's plan for an Ardennes offensive to be rejected? Would the allies have ground down Germany by 1942, given that Germany, even before the annexation of Czechia, had a higher population and produced more steel and electricity than either Britain or France?
Camp 1 holds that the fall of France was a pure fluke. Manstein's plan even being implemented and the Ardennes offensive happening at all were rather unlikely, and it was only Hitler overriding the general staff that it happened. The French discovering Germany's previous plan and it confirming their thoughts was lucky for Germany, as was France's slow response times. Had Manstein's plan not gone through, which seems more likely than OTL, the Germans would have lost in 1940 and been ground down by the Entente. Same with a bluntet sickle.
Camp 2 holds that the fall of France was mostly inevitable without a pre-war PoD. The German use of radios in their tanks gave them a huge advantage in communications, and their concentration of armor formations, as opposed to the allies mixing their armor in with the infantry, along with German use of air power to a greater degree than the allies, made victory much more likely than defeat. It might take longer, but it would probably happen.
My question is, how "should" WW2 in 1940 have gone? From a timeline writing perspective, OTL's fall of France would be laughed at as ASB in pretty much any timeline. Would it be more probable for Manstein's plan for an Ardennes offensive to be rejected? Would the allies have ground down Germany by 1942, given that Germany, even before the annexation of Czechia, had a higher population and produced more steel and electricity than either Britain or France?