I am not sure where I stated the Rhomanoi would have called them as such.
You asked if restaurants in Rhomania were based on Taberna and Popinae, and my point, probably a bit obscure, was that why would the Greeks take their restaurant practices from the Romans, I mean more than you can spin differences on restaurants.
The Empire doesn't have enough specialist trade schools to have moved past guilds yet. As things are, the master-apprentice system is the best way to ensure that techniques and information get reliably passed down instead of lost every generation.
Once widespread education, unit standardization, consumer middle class, etc. become things in the Empire then industrialization will take over and force Guilds into either reforming or dying out.
In that case I have no idea. It'd really depend on how sophisticated the Roman theories of economics are.It isn't so much the breaking of the Guilds but more that, at least in 18th C. France, they petitioned the have his establishment closed because it infringed on their control of preparation of certain foods, with proprietors only allowed to serve their goods. In 1765, Boulanger prepared and served multiple foods of different types on location. After his restaurant closed, copies started to spring up shortly thereafter and the birth of the restaurant truly began. These events did not have much cause from either the industrial revolution, or consumer middle class effects.
Would there be such a strangle hold on these practices to such a minute detail, or would the basis of the Popinae be enough to bridge that issue and have more freedom for establishment owners?