AHC: How to eliminate/reduce transatlantic slavery

Hello, I want to start a discussion about alternate scenarios where transatlantic slavery either mostly eliminated or reduce to a smaller time frame and scale.

First of all some statistics:

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(The ex-colonies, outside the USA, are considered under their respective mother country.)

Some other graphs:

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Basically 80% of slaves came after 1700 and until 1625 the Portuguese dominated the trade with the Spanish as a relative small and inconsistent participant.

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We can abstract the situation in strictly economical terms and start developing complex ideas from there, thus to reduce slavery we need to:
  1. Reduce supply of enslaved Africans
  2. Reduce demand of specifically enslaved African labor
Some ideas on how to reduce supply, I personally can't find many but maybe it means each point in of itself can radically change the situation:
  • African states less willing or able to capture slaves from internal reasons, how do we achieve such a situation? I have seen some claims that Muslims were quite less likely to enslave islamized populations and sell them to Europeans.
  • Early nations such as Portugal avoid or simply don't(for a reason or another) engage in early slave trade, thus reducing the circumstances and institutions that allowed or pushed African slavers to increase the amount of people enslaved in later times. What is the origin of the early Portuguese attitudes? How can we change them?
I found more reasons on how to reduce demand:
  • An obvious way to not enslave Africans is to enslave other people, the Spaniards abolished native enslavement even if in effect forced labor continued to exist, would removing the pretense of having removed native slavery change anything for the Spanish for the early slave trade? Can native forced labor be sustainable given different circumstances? Can Asian slaves even be a feasible proposition?
  • Another way to reduce demand is obvious when comparing the North American continental plantations and Brazil, reducing mortality rates even by a little would cause a large decrease in overall demand and if slaves are able to increase their numbers the demand would be even lower. But this ties to my next points, is brutality and harsh conditions at all necessary to increase or have any kind of profit from plantations? If not, why was slavery strictly necessary at all? Also does geography play any role in the difference in mortality rates?
  • We could replace enslave labor with other type of free or semi-free labor, obviously this would involve more Europeans, be it through indentured servants or free labor, as in my previous point I'm wondering if it possible that non-enslaved labor can bring overall profits in tropical plantations.
  • Europeans could be, by virtue of different established traditions in the Atlantic African trade, less willing overall to use enslaved African labor after 1600, maybe if we remove early slavers there is less of a tradition from where to build this institution and instead other avenues to transport or create sustainable labor are found.
  • Maybe reducing the risks and costs of transportation from Europe would facilitate and encourage more people to move, an idea would be to fix scurvy early which would be a major change but outside that how do we facilitate especially small countries like Portugal and the Netherlands in finding European labor outside their own borders?
  • Reducing the mortality of Europeans in the tropics could also facilitate the use of more free labor, maybe an early discovery and implementations by Europeans of quinoa could radically change the situation in the tropics? How possible is such an early use of quinoa on a large scale?
  • How can the social or political situation in Europe negatively affect the slave trade, were certain social classes more likely to oppose slavery than others for whatever reason?
This is all I have in mind right now, I have been rather vague in terms of concrete events so I thinking brainstorming specific timelines can be a useful endevour too.
 
Another possible earlier technical improvement that could dissuade the usage of slavery is earlier adoption of sugar beets, does anyone know roughly how various plantation crops ranked in terms of importance?
 
The african nations need to be stronger to prevent the enslavement. Kongo was getting westernised in OTL converted to Catholocism and sent an envoy to the pope like the Japanese but once the Portuguese were really starting their business their state diminished as they lost their population. The king of Kongo even asked the Portuguese to stop.
Also if Spain stays free of Habsburgs and through this is much less tied to european wars they could enforce the OTL decision to ban slavery. Charles V. couldn't really do this because he needed the money thanks to a german monk called Martin Luther. This could at least mean that there aren't slaves in spanisch america which would lead to an alternate economic model in the americas which even the protestant countries could look towards if they don't want to engage in slavery or the hypothetical spanisch model shows that it is superior. However I don't know how this would look like maybe like an imitation of the feudal european system.
 
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The prototype for slave-driven sugar plantations was the Spanish Canary Islands. If we can somehow get Spain not to colonize/conquer them, we might prevent the whole system from developing. Of course, the Spanish conquest of the Canaries was a long, slow process, so it might be hard to get rid of.
 
England technically never legalized slavery, and it was abolished after the norman conquest, which was the grounds for abolition legally otl. So that might help there, if the King and Parliament enforce the illegality. Plus there's always Ireland.

France is harder since they only really bothered with sugar colonies and forts in the Mississippi. But they were small enough we dont really have to bother messing with them.

Portugal... maybe if we tie it down in Morocco more? Or have it prefer conversion of west Africa to enslavement, for whatever reason.

Spain... imma be real idk enough about the Spanish carribean or Argentina for that
 
The prototype for slave-driven sugar plantations was the Spanish Canary Islands. If we can somehow get Spain not to colonize/conquer them, we might prevent the whole system from developing. Of course, the Spanish conquest of the Canaries was a long, slow process, so it might be hard to get rid of.
I believe Madeira was even earlier, maybe they could use non-Iberians poor volunteers to settle the islands, for example look at this paragraph from this:


THE SUGAR CANE PLANTATION AND PLANTATION SLAVERY The distinctiveness of Madeira in the development of the world economy was that the uninhabited island was settled by what I have referred to as aspiring Portuguese nobles who found themselves without the lower classes to perform the manual labor that made possible society in the stratified way it was known on the European continent at the time. One might hypothesize that the settlers of Madeira could have cleared the land and irrigated it so as to have made subsistence agriculture possible. If perhaps the island had been discovered and settled by farmers of English, Scots, Irish or Scandinavian background, such as those who later settled in parts of North America, this might have been the case. But the early colonists in Madeira were not of these cultural backgrounds; hence they did not behave in this way. Instead, consistent with the tradition to which they, as upwardly mobile Portuguese, aspired, they created the conditions that would enable them to live the life of an Iberian noble. Consequently, they participated as fully as possible in the campaigns that constituted what we refer to now as the expansion and discovery. And when labor was needed to develop their island society, as in the building of irrigation works, rather than staying home and using their hands and backs, as a northern European farmer might have, they took Canary Islanders and Moors in the conduct of a just war, and put them to work.

How do we achieve that? One idea would be a conquest of the Canarians and Madeira in a setting where less slaves from the Canarians or Muslim captives are available, maybe a early 14th century colonization?
England technically never legalized slavery, and it was abolished after the norman conquest, which was the grounds for abolition legally otl. So that might help there, if the King and Parliament enforce the illegality. Plus there's always Ireland.

Portugal... maybe if we tie it down in Morocco more? Or have it prefer conversion of west Africa to enslavement, for whatever reason.
A different attitude to slavery from a legal/social/moral standpoint could partially work but we are still talking about territories on the other side of the ocean, moral and legal traditions in the mainland would be quite weaker in the new world.

They did both, so I don't think one precludes the other.
 
EASY to eliminate Transatlantic slavery...
You need the Native populations not to be so prone to European diseases. The spaniards struggled so much because they relied so much on subjecting a native populus.
When the Natives died, they brought in African slaves.
 
EASY to eliminate Transatlantic slavery...
You need the Native populations not to be so prone to European diseases. The spaniards struggled so much because they relied so much on subjecting a native populus.
When the Natives died, they brought in African slaves.
Well that's not exactly easy, it requires Pods many centuries prior and it's also going to be a weak method given that if Europeans still implement a harsh forced plantation system then natives would die a lot anyway, why do you think 5-6 million slaves were brought just to Brazil?
 
Well that's not exactly easy, it requires Pods many centuries prior and it's also going to be a weak method given that if Europeans still implement a harsh forced plantation system then natives would die a lot anyway, why do you think 5-6 million slaves were brought just to Brazil?
Heh... I suppose it's not so easy than... :(
 
I don't know if stronger African empires would help, if they were almost as advanced as any other Old World Empire.

A potential Slave trade is possible if the Elites of those African empires decide to breed slaves to export, in exchange for riches they could earn with that. Slavery was a pretty much spread in the Old World and hence it may not be a big thing for them. On the contrary, they would enrich themselves with Slave trade, in that way. The present standard of morals didn't apply, to most of the World then.

The probable only guaranteed way to prevent Slavery in the New World, is by having Europe more industrialized and automated by then. This could come from many sources but one best and my favorite one is China successfully industrializing by the Antiquity/Medieval and spreading that to Europe through trade, for money, which would enrich both continents. However, this means you have more players in the Colonial Age. Other Industrialization PODs for Europe industrializing exist, too. I think you have a gist now.
 
The probable only guaranteed way to prevent Slavery in the New World, is by having Europe more industrialized and automated by then. This could come from many sources but one best and my favorite one is China successfully industrializing by the Antiquity/Medieval and spreading that to Europe through trade, for money, which would enrich both continents. However, this means you have more players in the Colonial Age. Other Industrialization PODs for Europe industrializing exist, too. I think you have a gist now.
This is not solely about completely preventing slavery wholesale, but alternatively also reducing it in scale(time and numbers) and specifically in terms of West and Central Africa sources.

I feel like my ideas about less scurvy, more quinoa/less malaria and sugar beet are feasible ways to have earlier advancements, but early industrialism? THis is largely ASB and again requires a far reachign POD when you can probably address other things in the mean time, like social mores at the time or you can have colonialism happen at a time where there are more people from Europe willing to at least work in some of the lowest social positions in the colonies, even if not necessarily in the high mortality plantations.
 
Some new ideas:
  • Can sugar be grown in Africa itself? If so can't local muslim states use experts from MENA to implement sugar plantations in their own territories, redirecting the flow of pagan slaves to their homegrown plantations?
  • This technically doesn't really remove transatlantic slavery per se, but if the Christian Iberians were more successful in North Africa would the influx of muslim slaves replace the usage of West and Central African ones? I imagine at least in Macaronesia it could. I'm considering this scenario because it could remove the groundwork for the massive amounts of slaves of the 18th and 19th century that North Africa most likely can't supply and probably also weakens slavery overall if the recipients in North Africa don't exist. This could also tie with fleeing Maghrebis to the south creating a local sugar plantations system
  • What could influence the Spanish and Portuguese not to use slaves from the inside? Of course morality is one thing, but other than that?
 
An earlier discovery of the Sugar Beet would almost certainly reduce it.
Given that even slave labour still has costs for purchasing the slaves, their upkeep and paying the overseers I doubt Cane Sugar + Transport Costs would be competitive with homegrown and processed Beet Sugar.
 
Not sure what changes with the rebellion, you should elaborate.
Probably means that without Bacon’s rebellion, slavery wouldn’t have been as ingrained in British North America (modern United States). That does ignore that 95% of slaves transported across the Atlantic ended up elsewhere in the Americas.
 
Maghreb fall to European conquers in the 11-13 century, which means the transsahara slave trade are disrupted, the African states have to develop alternative sources of income and the Europeans doesn’t have a existing slave trade network which they can plug into.
 
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Perhaps having a respected Pope condemning slavery early on with full support from Iberian Royals.
Maybe adding this too.
England technically never legalized slavery, and it was abolished after the norman conquest, which was the grounds for abolition legally otl. So that might help there, if the King and Parliament enforce the illegality.
 
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