What would make Britain negotiate in 1940-1?

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Garrison

Donor
And we're back to the fantasy bombing campaign that works better with a limited fleet of medium bombers than any of the Allied campaigns with far larger forces of heavy bombers and radar navigation could manage in 44-45. Why Wiking do you find it so hard to accept that British capitulation in 40-41 is pretty much impossible without much earlier PODs?
 

Deleted member 1487

And we're back to the fantasy bombing campaign that works better with a limited fleet of medium bombers than any of the Allied campaigns with far larger forces of heavy bombers and radar navigation could manage in 44-45. Why Wiking do you find it so hard to accept that British capitulation in 40-41 is pretty much impossible without much earlier PODs?

I just edited my last post, see what I have quoted there and judge for yourself.
Britain was more vulnerable to interdiction than Germany or any continental nation was/is. Britain could not feed itself nor supply its own oil based fuel, nor provide enough coal to provide electricity and heat for its population.
Best case Britain can provide 2/3rds of its own food, less than 5% of its own fuel, and needed to import 2 million tons of coal.
That doesn't include all the metals, rubber, and other non-domestic resources that had to be imported.

Germany, despite her lack of resources, was able to sustain a war effort in WW1 and WW2 for several years without imports; Britain could not.
Germany didn't really have the same level pressure points; ultimately it was discovered to be her oil production facilities, which when targeted in late 1944-45 proved to be devastating, but by then the war war already over. The problem with the Combined Bomber Offensive was that it never had the right target until the end and also didn't concentrate for long enough on one target before switching to something else and letting German industry recover. Big Week was a case in point. Just as with the Germans, the Allies didn't focus their resources for a long enough period of time on one target and destroy it; the capacity to do so was there, but the leadership was lacking.

Also Britain had only three port areas that were actually handling international trade from June 1940-May 1941. Even with medium bombers and her pathfinders/radio navigations the Luftwaffe could concentrate on these three ports and cripple British imports during this period before Lend-Lease. That requires a sustained bombing effort, which, given the abysmal performance of the British nightfighters in 1940-1942 would actually see the number of German bombers increase in number while conducting because of the low loss rate for night missions during this period. That is production and bomber crew training exceeded losses during the Night Blitz.
 
Absolutely not. The British already anticipated losing the Army in France and were rebuilding a new Army in the U.K. Getting it back via Dunkirk was a bonus, not a necessity. In fact, Dunkirk itself went far better than its planners expected.

Indeed. The British hoped to save as many as 35,000 troops (working from memory here, you guys always ask the interesting questions when I'm at work :) ), when in fact they were able to keep the evacuation going long enough to retrieve about ten times that number.
 

BlondieBC

Banned
Best case Britain can provide 2/3rds of its own food, less than 5% of its own fuel, and needed to import 2 million tons of coal.
That doesn't include all the metals, rubber, and other non-domestic resources that had to be imported.

That 2/3 looks high, I had nearer 1/3 in WW1. Is the "2/3" perhaps 2/3 of the minimum rationing amount or is it 2/3 of the food eaten in 1938? Also, is that food grown with or without fertilizer imports? Yields will plummet with lack of fertilizer over a few years on many poorer soils.
 
There is one reasonably plausible scenario for the strict terms of the OP to be met - Case Yellow fails, the German thrust into the low countries and France is first held and then gradually pushed back. The army overthrows Hitler in a coup and the new regime offers negotiations based on the Status Quo Ante. Britain would probably be willing to talk then.
 
There is one reasonably plausible scenario for the strict terms of the OP to be met - Case Yellow fails, the German thrust into the low countries and France is first held and then gradually pushed back. The army overthrows Hitler in a coup and the new regime offers negotiations based on the Status Quo Ante. Britain would probably be willing to talk then.

How would that qualify as an "unfavorable peace"?
 
Some possibilities to put Britain in the mood to negotiate in summer of 1940:

(1) In the prewar period, the British heavy bomber advocates are successful in convincing the government that bombers will always get through and deliver the "knockout blow" that governments at the time feared. As a result, the British build up a bigger force of heavy bombers as a deterrent. Big fleets of four-engine bombers were expensive, and given limited financial resources, that build-up comes at the cost of having fewer fighters, not having the radar chain completely in place in the summer of 1940, getting a later start building up their army from the very low interwar levels, and some reductions in the naval build-up, which slows the expansion of their shipyard capabilities. When war comes, the big planes prove much less capable than expected for at least the first couple of years.

(2) France and Britain look at US neutrality laws in 1937-38 and conclude that they cannot depend on the US as a source for planes for expanding their air forces. As a result, both countries put their efforts into expanding domestic production, rather than placing the large orders they historically placed in the US. They also don't invest money into helping US aircraft manufacturers expand their facilities. As a result, the US aircraft industry does not expand anywhere near as fast in 1938-1940, and while the Brits have more production capacity for big bombers, they can't depend on the US for a flood of new planes in 1941 if they survive the summer of 1940.

(3) Weather permits the German attack in the West to happen in mid-March, preempting the Norway invasion and putting the Fall of France into a period where Chamberlain was still Prime Minister. The attack on France works as it did historically, with the exception that the Brits get a smaller percentage of their already smaller army out of Dunkirk, or wherever they end up trapped. Norway remains neutral, and the large Norwegian Merchant Marine does not become part of the effort to feed and supply Britain.

(4) The Germans capture French code-breaking facilities/personnel or documents that tell them that Enigma is compromised as part of the fall of France. That dries up an intelligence source that historically told the Brits that the Germans weren't ready to launch an invasion right after the Battle of France.

(5) Italy (a) Does not declare war until the bulk of its merchant marine is safely in Italian ports, avoiding giving the allies a gift of a third of the Italian merchant marine. (b) Concentrates all of its admittedly meager military assets against the Brits instead of spending most of the summer of 1940 building up for an attack on Yugoslavia that Hitler ultimately vetoed, (c) Sends the planes they sent to the Battle of Britain to North Africa instead, (d) Gets the M13/40 into production about 6 to 8 months earlier than they did historically, which means they have a few hundred available in Libya by the summer of 1940.

(6) The original Shah of Iran senses British weakness and nationalizes the British oil industry in Iran.

That's a lot of bad rolls of the dice for the Brits, but none of them are impossible and given the difficulty of getting to the Brits negotiating, multiple PODs are necessary to make this even remotely feasible.

Put all of that together, and you end up with the Germans sitting in the low-countries in mid-April 1940, with six months to potentially invade before weather in the channel made it non-feasible, as opposed to three months and change historically. Chamberlain is still in charge. He is blinded by the loss of Ultra and doesn't know how quickly the Germans are building up for an invasion. He has an incomplete radar chain and far fewer fighters (and fighter pilots) than the Brits did historically. British production of new fighters is lower than it was historically because it takes time to switch from bomber production to fighters.

Less fighter opposition means that the Germans can bring in dive bombers without unacceptable losses, which means they can bomb much more accurately. Poorer British radar coverage means that British planes can't intercept as accurately and are more apt to get caught on the ground. The German navy is intact, rather than nearly destroyed in the Norway invasion. Germany has used their airborne capability for the first time in Holland, rather than tipping their hand on its capabilities in Norway. As a result, their airborne forces suffer far fewer casualties in Holland than they did historically, and maybe their attempt to capture the Dutch government works.

Even with all of that, an actual invasion of Britain is unlikely to succeed. If (a) The Brits keep their nerve, and (b) The United States is politically able to support them financially, the Brits can still hold out. The Italians logistically couldn't do much actual harm to the Brits in North Africa. The best they could do would be to deny the Brits morale-building victories.

Would the Brits keep their nerve with Chamberlain in charge and a long summer of good invasion weather ahead, with the RAF losing control of the skies over Britain and with far less army to build on? I don't know.

Would the US be politically able to financially support Britain when it ran out of hard currency? Historically, Britain was essentially out of hard currency when Lend Lease passed in March 1941. I think they had to borrow money from either the Dutch or Norwegian government in exile to last that long. If they were fighting alone another two months plus change that could put them out of money perilously close to the US presidential election in November 1940. If the Iranians can make nationalization stick, even for a few months, that could run the Brits out of hard currency before the election. Not sure if Roosevelt could or would take the risk of proposing Lend-Lease before the election.
 
US Pressure

After the fall of France Britain was betting a lot on a friendly USA giving help and eventually joinning in the fight. Since Barbarossa shifts the focus of the war away from Britain the time for a negotiated peace is btw the fall of France and the attack on the USSR and the only thing that would bring the British Goverment to the negotiating table would be a radically different US policy in wich the US would mediate peace instead of supporting Britain in the war. This requires a totally diferent USA in 1940, and would probably take the form of a super Munich with who ever replaces Roosevelt in this POD playing the Neville Chamberlain part...
The Germans would then turn east anyway...
 
I'm surprised that an OP who has been a member of this site for many years would try to make such a thread.

It's something that a newbie to the site would introduce. All the questions he's asked and all the scenarios he's given have been discussed many times before and I'm sure he's aware of that.

Why not leave the Germany winning in 1940 and Britain negotiating stuff to the newbies and use the experience gained from many years of membership to make a better POD?
 

BlondieBC

Banned
I'm surprised that an OP who has been a member of this site for many years would try to make such a thread.

It's something that a newbie to the site would introduce. All the questions he's asked and all the scenarios he's given have been discussed many times before and I'm sure he's aware of that.

Why not leave the Germany winning in 1940 and Britain negotiating stuff to the newbies and use the experience gained from many years of membership to make a better POD?

To me it looks like a potentially very interesting TL. And since Calbear AA was so popular, it has potential to be a very popular TL.
 
I'm surprised that an OP who has been a member of this site for many years would try to make such a thread.

It's something that a newbie to the site would introduce. All the questions he's asked and all the scenarios he's given have been discussed many times before and I'm sure he's aware of that.

Why not leave the Germany winning in 1940 and Britain negotiating stuff to the newbies and use the experience gained from many years of membership to make a better POD?

Just two points.
1. Use of the N word (newbie of course
icon12.gif
) needs some rules...
2. If someone doesn't like a thread why not just ignore it? Why post just to criticize the thread starter?
 
Just two points.
1. Use of the N word (newbie of course
icon12.gif
) needs some rules...
2. If someone doesn't like a thread why not just ignore it? Why post just to criticize the thread starter?

You're right, criticizing is not good.

By Newbie I mean someone who is making their first POD or has made less than a 100 posts. That's my attempt at a definition and I'm sure others will have a different measure.

Often when you see the Axis winning in 1940 PODs they are made by people who have recently joined the site. Just check the PODs when they appear and then check the date the member joined and you will know what I mean.

More experienced members have seen them a 100 times before and often 'educate' (a horrible word but I can't think of a better one) the newbie that what they're talking about won't work and try to explain why.
 

BlondieBC

Banned
You're right, criticizing is not good.

By Newbie I mean someone who is making their first POD or has made less than a 100 posts. That's my attempt at a definition and I'm sure others will have a different measure.

Often when you see the Axis winning in 1940 PODs they are made by people who have recently joined the site. Just check the PODs when they appear and then check the date the member joined and you will know what I mean.

More experienced members have seen them a 100 times before and often 'educate' (a horrible word but I can't think of a better one) the newbie that what they're talking about won't work and try to explain why.

Wiking has not said the Axis win, just they do better.

To believe the Axis could not have done any better is to believe the Nazi were the perfect warriors. It also requires the UK and France to be the worst warriors in history.

One of the most popular TL on the board has the Axis winning in the 1940's, until later reverses in the 1950's.
 
You're right, criticizing is not good.

By Newbie I mean someone who is making their first POD or has made less than a 100 posts. That's my attempt at a definition and I'm sure others will have a different measure.

Often when you see the Axis winning in 1940 PODs they are made by people who have recently joined the site. Just check the PODs when they appear and then check the date the member joined and you will know what I mean.

More experienced members have seen them a 100 times before and often 'educate' (a horrible word but I can't think of a better one) the newbie that what they're talking about won't work and try to explain why.


I am aware of it and you're right in most counts. I was essencialy making the point that no mater how "spent" the thread is, someone might have a new take on it.
 
How would that qualify as an "unfavorable peace"?

It'll be a lot more unfavorable than OTL. The OP didn't define his terms more precisely than that.

The problem with requiring Britain to be forced to the negotiating table by 1940 requires a stream of dubious propositions, all of which need to come true.

1. Hitler needs to identify Britain - not the USSR, not France, but Britain - as his primary enemy no later than 1935 or so.

2. He needs to take the correct decisions as to how to presecute war with Britain.

3. He still needs to defeat France quickly to get the Channel ports.

4. He needs the British not to notice any of the above and not take any counter-measures.

(1) Is unlikely, but not impossibly so. (2) is rather less likely, Hitler needs to do things like focus naval construction on unglamorous stuff like submarines and landing craft. Being Hitler, he'd be a lot more likely to go for battleships instead. Unless he can build abot 20 or so in 5 years (he can't), this will be no real threat to Britain. (3) Doable, if (2) only involves shuffling resources around within the naval allocation, not increasing it. But that makes the naval side of things even less likely to work. (4) This only happens in Steve Stirling novels. ASB level intervention is required here. And note again - he needs *all* of these things to happen, not just one or two of them.
 

BlondieBC

Banned
It'll be a lot more unfavorable than OTL. The OP didn't define his terms more precisely than that.

The problem with requiring Britain to be forced to the negotiating table by 1940 requires a stream of dubious propositions, all of which need to come true.

1. Hitler needs to identify Britain - not the USSR, not France, but Britain - as his primary enemy no later than 1935 or so.

2. He needs to take the correct decisions as to how to presecute war with Britain.

3. He still needs to defeat France quickly to get the Channel ports.

4. He needs the British not to notice any of the above and not take any counter-measures.

(1) Is unlikely, but not impossibly so. (2) is rather less likely, Hitler needs to do things like focus naval construction on unglamorous stuff like submarines and landing craft. Being Hitler, he'd be a lot more likely to go for battleships instead. Unless he can build abot 20 or so in 5 years (he can't), this will be no real threat to Britain. (3) Doable, if (2) only involves shuffling resources around within the naval allocation, not increasing it. But that makes the naval side of things even less likely to work. (4) This only happens in Steve Stirling novels. ASB level intervention is required here. And note again - he needs *all* of these things to happen, not just one or two of them.

1) One is not required. It would be a great help, but not required.

2) Hitler or his subordinates need to make better decisions. The decision don't have to be specifically designed to beat the UK, they just need to be useful in the fight with Britain. Wiking changing of the bomber program gives Germany better bombers which would be useful in a war with the USSR. For example, bombing of the railroads deep in USSR would be useful. Germany could have a much better naval capability against the UK by planning on how to interdict as sea supplies going to Murmansk and other Soviet ports.

3) Yes, these changes need to not butterfly away other success, which is a real risk for many POD's.

4) Not quite correct. The UK needs to not notice or not think it is a great danger or not react to the danger or have ineffective countermeasures.
 

Deleted member 1487

Why not leave the Germany winning in 1940 and Britain negotiating stuff to the newbies and use the experience gained from many years of membership to make a better POD?

Recent reading on the subject as indicated that the British government, even Churchill, were not opposed to negotiations. I realize that it is a common thread, but I hoped to avoid the cliched answers and find someone that might be more educated on British politics and able to answer the question in a more analytical way than the usual "Well they didn't negotiate IOTL, why would they ITTL".

As usual there is a lot of nuance and most posters are caught on the propaganda-based history like 'It was their finest hour' and British solidarity, when even during Chamberlain's administration Churchill was recorded as having suggested acceptable terms. This suggests that he wasn't a serious about not negotiating as propaganda-based histories suggest and most of the answers I've gotten and ever seen given on a question like this are based.

http://www.amazon.com/1940-Myth-Reality-Clive-Ponting/dp/1566630363
Clive Ponting discusses this in less depth than I'd like, though he does source his claims. He also shows that Halifax and Churchill were of the same mind until Churchill replaced Chamberlin and decided to break off peace talk until after Sealion had failed to bargain from strength. By the time that Sealion was official canceled (1941) and the LW had been defeated in the Battle of Britain, Churchill felt that Britain could hold out because the German attacks, though painful, were little more than a nuisance and Britain could wait for either the US or the USSR to enter the war and take the offensive to the Germans, because Britain alone could survive indefinitely with German attacks as ineffective as they were.

Obviously this hinges on Churchill having the view that the German threat to Britain was not great enough to consider terms. I've never seen the question properly answered as to what would convince Churchill or his government to consider terms, so I thought I'd ask again, hoping for someone with a better answer.

Perhaps you're right that it was a newbie move to expect an educated answer beyond posters repeating the tired cliches they've seen older posters post in these types of threads, but there are very educated people on this board and I hoped that one of them might be able to post information that goes deeper into the issue and explores more than the white-washing that figures like Churchill got after the war to make them look more stoic and principled than they really were.
 
Bombers carry much more tonnage than artillery shells, unless we're talking the 350mm caliber and above, then its a 1/2 ton shell with 600 lbs HE, and then even the HE111 carried 2 tons worth of bombs with larger percentages of HE to shell container. Armor penetrating bombs can burrow in concrete and steel and do even more damage, but its the incendiaries like Thermite that causes the most trouble. Historically the British determined that German incendiary bombs caused roughly 10x the damage of HE to steel and concrete. What caliber of artillery were the Chinese using? I'm betting it wasn't anything above 155mm, which is less than 100lbs of HE per shell. You're not going to hurt much of the concrete and steel with that. And there really aren't thermite artillery shells that I'm aware of; also did the ChiComs have White Phosphorus?

I think it's necessary to look into what is involved in preventing ports from operating in greater detail. None of the factors you mention above are of any real importance compared with two that are of overwhelming importance. Ports are huge areas that comprise structures that are very difficult to damage yet very easy to repair. Most of a port is void space – indeed most of a "port area" is open water into which bombs will fall and inflict only limited damage. The dispersed nature of a port means that fire is not very effective as a means of destruction; fires caused by incendiaries will not have the concentrated fuel needed to take hold and spread. So, what are the primary advantages of artillery fire? One is the sheer number of artillery rounds used. The Chinese Communists dumped close to half a million artillery rounds on to KinmenIsland in around six weeks. Sure, each round is small compared with large bombs although they compare well with the smaller ones used by bombers in 1940 (the Chinese communist artillery by the way was mostly 122mm and 152mm with some 130mm guns plus 120mm, 160mm and 240mm mortars). But, there are huge numbers of rounds and they can be spread over the target area. In effect, they are cluster bombs. The other advantage artillery fire has in this connection is that it took place in daylight and used artillery spotters to adjust fire and correct aim. Your proposed bombers are bombing blind without spotting or correction, at night, at extreme range. A vastly less efficient form of bombardment. The truth is that in this application, artillery fire is vastly more effective that night bombing yet cannot close down a port. As a final example, when we went Downtown in December 1972, we used B-52s against Haiphong. Now, Miss Buffy carried a bombload that a Luftwaffe bomber in 1940 could only dream about and could deliver it with a level of accuracy Luftwaffe pilots didn't know enough to realize that dreaming about it was possible. Yet, even then, we didn’t close down Haiphong (a vastly smaller port than any you are discussing).

How much effort did the Allies try to put into closing German ports?
A lot. Hamburg, Bremen and Kiel ring a bell? Ports were on the priority target list due to the importance of German coastal shipping. We did a lousy job of closing them down though. In the far East we dropped an atomic bomb on Hiroshima and that didn’t close the port down either. In fact, I can't think of a single port that has ever been closed by bombardment.

AFAIK ports were relatively useless to the German war effort as far as production goes,
That isn't correct. Coastal shipping was extremely important to the German war effort, in the Channel, North Sea and Baltic.

unless we're talking about subpens and the like, which the Allies created the Grand Slam bomb for, which did a damn fine job of knocking out those pens. The US and RAF put most of their efforts into bombing cities and factories, only later switching to infrastructure (rail roads) and oil production. They weren't able to safely bomb
Germany reliably until 1944 either by day or night.

1943. We had things down to a fine art by 1944. But, even earlier than that, we were still doing better than the Germans were two years earlier.

But the other issue isn't just the ports. Its getting material off the docks before it can be destroyed. In
Liverpool where the greatest import capacity was in 1940-1 and Britain handled 87% of its imports in 1940-1, it didn't have a direct connection between the docks and the rail lines, so required trucks to take imports from the warehouses to the trains. This means that filling the streets with rubble would seriously disrupt the ability of the ports to discharge goods to the trains and distribute it to the rest of the country. In London they found that delayed action bombs and unexploded ordnance from even single raids took weeks to clear and blocked roads during that time.

But, you have now diverted most of your bombing force away from bombing the port itself and turned it loose on the city as a whole. This dramatically reduces the force available to damage the port. Using London as an example – and this is by far the "best case" target set for the Germans since it is a huge target, at short range and with a very distinctive geographical feature to obtain target location – the port of London was never closed down despite the intensive bombing. Buried in your comment is another problem and that is bombing concentration. To stand any chance of damaging a port, the bombing has to be extremely accurate and extremely concentrated. To damage a city in the way you suggest, the bombing has to be dispersed over it. So, your two objectives are mutually exclusive.

Plus there is the matter of the dockworkers, who were, IOTL with the limited bombing of cities like Liverpool, increasingly absent from work because they were 'Trekking' to avoid bombing raids. Increase those raids to several times a week on special targets like
Liverpool and finding the men to work the docks is going to get harder and harder, especially as they have no place to live and their families aren't safe in the cities any longer.

This sounds like something Ponting came up with. He is not a reliable source and is not considered credible. He cherry-picks data to prove his own preconceptions and has a very string political axe to grind. The case here is an assumption (trekking is going to happen) based on an unreliable foundation. Therefore, the suggestion is hypothetical at best. You'll need to get actual productivity data to show this is actually a plausible outcome. By the way, all the existing evidence is that bombing campaigns didn't have the long-term effects you propose.

As to British night defenses, the Luftwaffe was bombing
Britain by night consistently, though not in concentrated formations, from June 1940 through May 1941. By May 1941 the loss rates from all causes, losses to enemy and accidents was only about 1% and there were still major raids that were not being intercepted at all. Considering that the Germans stopped daylight raids, except for small ones, in October the British didn't improve their night defenses enough to inflict even a 1% loss rate on the Luftwaffe after 7 months of sustained night bombing, including after a small firestorm in London on the night of December 29th.

There is no such thing as a small firestorm. As to loss rates, do you realize what a cumulative loss rate is and how it affects force levels? Using your one percent figure, assuming two missions per week and a six month bombing campaign, by the end of it you will have lost more than 60 percent of your bomber force – and, much more critically, more than 60 percent of your crews. Thus, your campaign will have effectively destroyed the German bomber force and the characteristics of your target set means that you will have lost the bombers without achieving the objective of closing the ports down. However, your basic figures here are inappropriate. You quote loss rates without considering the environment. Most of the German raids were aimed at London which is only a few miles from the coast and a few minutes flying time in. That severely limited the time the British had to make interceptions and restricted the precision of their tracking data. If the bombers are ignoring London and going for targets in the north and Scotland, then we are in an entirely different environment. The bombers are over hostile territory for two and a half to three hours before reaching their targets as opposed to 15 – 20 minutes on a London raid (then they have to get out again). That alone will push their loss rate up dramatically. Then, the bombers will be accurately tracked and that greatly increases the efficiency of night fighters – in fact, as the Germans proved, day fighters under ground intercept control will do pretty well under those circumstances. Especially if the fighters have nothing better to do. Again we can take a lesson from bombing coastal cities in Germany here – targets analogous to London (ie a few miles from the coast) were considered milk runs, good for training newbie crews. Targets deep in Germany, analogous to your ports, were considered very hazardous.

As to precision, the Luftwaffe had developed Radio Navigation and pathfinder formations pre-war, which allowed them to achieve as good of and in some cases better precision (within 100 meters) at night than during the day during the Battle of Britain and beyond.

The 100 meter figure is incorrect; we can't achieve that level of precision today without using guided bombs. Suggesting that bombers can achieve better precision at night than in the day is also unsupportable; the suggestion ignores a wide range of factors that make 1940 night bombing a hit-or miss (mostly miss) affair. It's an easy mistake to make; the USAAC made the same basic error in the 1930s.

The British tried to jam the German beams, but even as late as May 1941 the Germans were still able to use X-Gerät without trouble if they took precautions.

Actually, by then, the navigation systems used by the Germans were pretty much passé. Also, they are range-limited and range dependent. They were fine for attacking targets in the south of England; they were OK for attacking targets in the southern midlands. Beyond that, they were of marginal use.

Assorted Wikipedia quotes

Wikipedia is not an authoritative or reliable source; using it gets the scholar an F-grade. However, even assuming the information in it is accurate (a very big and unsupportable assumption) it misses the point completely. The thing about ports is that the damage to them is very easy to repair. In fact, a bombed port can be put back into operation within hours. There are two ways to close a port down. One is to send in demolition teams who can tape large charges of explosive to key structures and drop them into the port itself. In fairness the Germans were extremely good at that (combat engineers still marvel at how they managed to literally tie two cranes into a knot while dropping them into the basin). The other is to mine it. To do the latter one needs much more effective bombers than the Germans had in WW2.

As to why the Germans had a decent shot at night bombing, they didn't really try to concentrate their bombers for missions. Goering kept changing strategies weekly and ordered so many bombing targets that the Luftwaffe was too dispersed to achieve anything. Even London was only sporadically bombed from September 1940-May 1941 and it was the heaviest his city in Britain. Nevertheless the Luftwaffe bombed every major city in Britain, but didn't concentrate against any one for long enough to achieve anything. The British intelligence services were so confused by the dispersed bombing they concluded that the Germans were simply trying to terrorize all of Britain, instead of going after specific targets, as Goering did actually order. He just ordered so many targets that none were actually knocked out. Focus on three main targets for several months and that could have changed:
Liverpool/Merseyside
Avonmouth/Bristol
River Clyde/Glasgow/Clydeside
These port areas handled 95% of all British imports from the Fall of France to the German invasion of Russia.

The fundamental presumption that is false here is that the air operations take place in a void. You're blaming Goering for the dispersion of effort when in fact its inherent in running a war. The idea that an air force can concentrate all its efforts on a single objective to the exclusion of all others is the sort of thing that war gamers come up with and does not reflect what goes on in the real world. In reality, any given air campaign takes place in an environment where there are multiple conflicting demands for the use of resources and in which compromises have to be executed between the varying demands of interested parties. Read a history of the allied bomber forces and the policy decisions that took place over bombing priorities and you'll begin to get the picture. It's not just a question of waving a hand and stating that you'll only be bombing ports. It's a much more complex political environment than that. You yourself proved that when you brought in the transportation and dehousing issues. By doing so you turned your campaign of blockade by bombardment into a generalized assault on the cities – which the Luftwaffe did and failed at.

There's another problem – assuming that the figure of 95 percent is correct – it applies to what happened. If those ports did have their capacity severely reduced, the British aren't going to simply break their pencils in half, throw them in the air and give up. They'll find other ports to take up the slack and there are plenty of choices. The British used key port complexes because they were the most efficient. If they become less efficient, emphasis shifts to the next most efficient and so on.

I know where you are coming from on this and I sympathize; it really is extremely hard to find a way of knocking Britain out of the war in 1940. The problem is that there just isn't a way of doing it that has any reasonable shred of plausibility. Your port blockade by bombardment is probably less plausible than the unmentionable sea mammal. It assumes a gross over-exaggeration of Luftwaffe capabilities, a gross understatement of British capabilities, a complete overstatement of the vulnerability of ports to destruction and a complete understatement of the complexities of the political environment when planning a bombing campaign.
 
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