WI: Continued Union of Aragon and Navarre

In OTL, when Alfonso I of Aragon died childless, the union between Aragon and Navarre/Pamplona ceased. So, what if, likely due to a different and earlier marriage, Alfonso produced heirs and Aragon and Navarre continued to be united under one king?
 
Would have been it continuous to begin with?
Navarre had different laws than Aragon in regard of successions : for instance allowing feminine succession; explaining why the kingdom knew more personal unions than Clinton with his interims.

At some point, if a daughter is the sole heir (as it's possible for Alfonso after all), the kingdoms would be probably separated anew. Of course it did help that a dynastic union existed : after all they were Jimenez rulers of Aragon.

Now, Alfonso problem may simply be sterility. The union wasn't dissolved for not being consumed, so it may implies an issue with any spouse (as with lack of bastard that can as well be explained by his pious character as well). A surviving Peter of Aragon may be more safe on this regard.

I think that, as long the union wasn't followed by any kind of unitary administration or rule, the personal union would be safe. In the contrary situation, local nobility (whom ties were as well present in Aragon than Leon or France; Pampelune/Navarre being a "border kingdom" sort of buffer state) may be more unruly.

The main consequences would be a less important French influence on the kingdom, and maybe a more easily maintainable hold of Aragon in the northern part of Pyrenees : OTL, Pyreneean principalities were already under its suzerainty or influence for the greater part, and it may be reinforced. Eventually, it may be traded with France or less probably Castille for some advantages or as a peace condition, but the potential is there.
 
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