WI: Joanna 'The Mad' and Philip of Habsburg had two other sons?

So, I was here thinking about inheritance issues regarding Spain and Austria of Early 16th century, and something came to mind:

There's no doubt about the influence and importance of the sons of Joanna 'The Mad' of Castile and Philip 'The Handsome' of Habsburg, the celebrated Holy Roman Emperor (and King of Spain) Charles V and his brother (and also Emperor) Ferdinand.

As we know, after his abdication Charles left the Burgundian lands and nonetheless the Iberian and Mediterranean kingdoms of Castile, Aragon, Sardinia, Naples and Sicily to his son Philip, while the Austrian lands and the rulership of the Holy Roman Empire were left to Ferdinand, who was also King of Bohemia and Hungary.

Although the union of Iberian crowns was desired at first by the Catholic Monarchs Isabella and Ferdinand, parents to Joanna, it later became clear that Ferdinand had other plans for his domains, since he even remairred after Isabella's death in an attemp to produce an heir to prevent the ascension of his hated grandson Charles in Aragon.

Notwithstanding, the Burgundian Netherlands were left almost alone by the Spanish kings, who were also unable to deal with the new ideas of the Reformation and financially exhausting those lands with taxes to fund wars. A resident, diplomatic and religiously tolerant ruler instead of various governors plus the indifference of Madrid probably would've done a lot of difference if such a person existed IOTL.

So, let's suppose that Philip lived long enough to give Joanna two additional heirs to this vast empire: let's call them John (in reference to Joanna's deceased elder brother) and Maximilian (namesake to his grandfather, the emperor Maximilian). In this hypothetical scenario, how would the division of the lands happen?

Does anybody here have ideas on how such partition could've happened? Any short/long-term consequences to the political scenario of 16th century europe? How would the marriage policy developed under those circumstances?

Besides, I know this is somewhat unrelated to the questions above, but he was IOTL like a third grandson to Maximilian I due to his closeness to the Habsburgs: how about Louis II of Hungary and Bohemia surviving Mohács and producing heirs to the throne of his territories and maybe to the throne of Poland?

The existence of two additional sons of Philip the Handsome would primarily affect the hereditary Habsburg possessions in TTL. Lets say Philip dies (from the inevitable poison his loving father in law would provide) in 1508 in TTL after fathering John b.1507 and Maximilian b.1508. Ignoring the possible damage of a longer reign for Philip in Castile, this leaves King Ferdinand II both regent of Castile and guardian of his three youngest grandsons. Philip did not set aside any of his Burgundian inheritance for Ferdinand in OTL, so I do not see the existence of two more sons changing his mindset. In TTL, Ferdinand probably still fails to produce a male heir so upon his death, Emperor Charles V still inherits Aragon. In TTL, Charles would send his three Spanish raised brothers away as soon as possible. In OTL, Emperor Maximilian I made betrothal arrangements for OTL’s Emperor Ferdinand I at the first Congress of Vienna in 1515, so I imagine he would be making similar arrangements for John and Maximilian the Younger in TTL. Perhaps Hedwig, Princess of Poland could marry one of the archdukes. Upon Maximilian I’s death, Charles V would likely cede the hereditary Habsburgs lands to his younger brothers with Ferdinand receiving the largest portion. Ferdinand would likely be made regent for his brother’s territories until they came of age.

In TTL, Ferdinand would wind up with considerably less power than he did in OTL. If Louis II of Hungary and Bohemia were to survive and produce sons, then Ferdinand does not get elected to those thrones in this TTL. Louis would need the help of his three brothers in law in TTL to defend Hungary against the Ottomans. With Charles V occupied with France in TTL, Louis is still going to have a difficult time against the Ottomans. In TTL, one of the Louis’s sons could be a potential candidate for the Polish throne if the Jagiellonian line were to expire in Poland. Perhaps Louis’s sons in TTL could form a coalition of Poland, Hungary, Bohemia, and Austria against the Ottomans. Depending of the talents and personalities of John and Maximilian in TTL, the archdukes could be either a help or hindrance to their older brothers. In OTL, Charles V was fortunate to have a brother like Ferdinand who was both loyal and competent. I doubt John and Maximilian would be that much of a help for Charles in TTL. They could possibly hurt the dynasty by turning Protestant. John and Maximilian may withhold their assistance in the wars against the Ottomans that Ferdinand would still take part in TTL. In TTL, Charles V would probably still have Ferdinand elected king of the Romans. But the heirs of John and Maximilian may compete with Ferdinand’s heirs for the imperial throne in this scenario for decades to come.

Hmm, so do you think that even having the chance of dividing the inheritance equally amongst the four brothers, probably Charles would, still, keep himself as the universal sovereign all over those territories just as IOTL? I don't know if this would be an overly dramatic and/or even historically plausible outcome, but how about Charles, Ferdinand, John and Maximilian fighting bloodsheddingly over the Austrian/Burgundian/Iberain/Italian territories, sinking Europe in decades of pointless wars leading to the bankrupcy and social instability of the Habsburg empire, the subsequent weakening of the Catholic powers over Europe and the ascension of Protestantism?

In this chaotic scenario, Spain's power on America's colonization would also be deeply affected, probably making room to earlier colonization attempts by France and England and leaving entire South America and the Eastern Indies (such as the Philippines) free to Portugal. Also, Spain could've suffered a massive counterattack by the enslaved Indigenous populations, now aware of European means and technology.

I know this is probably sounds absurd and overdone but imagine how intense things would've been in this scenario! Hahaha. Double the trouble, double the fun.
Any other opinions on the matter? And what about the four Habsburg sisters Eleanor, Isabella, Mary and Catherine?

I think it's nearly a given at least one of the brothers will go into the Church, as the family frequently did every other time they had an overabundance of male heirs.

Space Oddity said:

I think it's nearly a given at least one of the brothers will go into the Church, as the family frequently did every other time they had an overabundance of male heirs.

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Hmm I thought about that too. Probably the best example of overabundance is the family of Emperor Maximilian II, who had six sons who survived childhood.

But in this case there wouldn't be absolutely no chance of, for instance, John inheriting his maternal grandmother's Castile, while Ferdinand inherits Aragon from his grandfather, leaving Mary of Burgundy's lands to Charles and giving Maximilian his namesake grandfather's Austria/Holy Roman Empire?

In OTL, Philip did not make any inheritance provisions for Ferdinand, so I do not see him doing anything for any additional sons he may have in TTL. In OTL, Charles V did not give Ferdinand any of his Burgundian inheritance and used his power as emperor to promulgate the Pragmatic Sanction of 1549, which united the seventeen provinces into a single entity with a common succession law. The only way Ferdinand would have ruled the Burgundian inheritance would be if Charles V had died without having any children. It should be kept in mind that in OTL, Charles V tried to have Ferdinand step aside as king of the Romans in favor of Philip II of Spain, and to the disadvantage of Ferdinand’s own sons. Ferdinand finally agreed to support the election of Philip as king of the Romans when he became emperor with Ferdinand’s son to follow Philip. This agreement was subsequently ignored by Ferdinand and the two brothers had a bitter falling out over the succession issue. Now if Charles V was that stingy with his inheritance rights in OTL, with a brother as loyal as Ferdinand was, what makes anybody think he would be more generous with John and Maximilian?

Emperor Maximilian I made provisions for Charles and Ferdinand to inherit his lands. That is why I believe he would do the same for John and Maximilian in TTL. Ferdinand II actually did want to secure the thrones of both Castile and Aragon for Ferdinand in OTL. Even a master politician like Ferdinand II could not convince the Cortes of Aragon and Castile to ignore the succession rights of Charles V if favor of his brother. Ferdinand wanted to arrange for his namesake grandson to become regent upon his death but was convinced not to do so by his advisers. So I do not see John and/or Maximilian being able to inherit any part of the Spanish inheritance. Now if Charles V has a second son in TTL, he may very well grant that son the Burgundian inheritance. The Burgundian Habsburgs could compete with their numerous Austrian cousins for the imperial throne. As for Philip’s daughters in TTL, I do not see their marriage prospects changing that much. Mary would still be betrothed and married to Louis II, Isabella to Christian II of Denmark and on. Of course who John and Maximilian marry in TTL could have repercussions. I imagine Maximilian I would look to marry them to potential heiresses as he did with Ferdinand in OTL.

Now the marriage game gets interesting! Supposing that Charles V still marries Isabella of Portugal, and Ferdinand marries Anne of Bohemia and Hungary just as in OTL, who could John and Maximilian marry?

The only one from OTL I can remember, Claude of France-Brittany, was bethroted to Francis I of France, thus her inheritance was permanently annexed to the Valois possessions. Would it be plausible to marry her off to John or Maximilian?

In a scenario in which Claude marries one of the new Habsburg siblings, Eleanor would be free to maybe marrying Francis earlier, providing issue before he gets infatuated with lots of disease-ridden mistresses, and assuring the survival of the Valois for at least a century more, who knows?

Maximilian I would have loved to have had one of his grandsons married to Claude of Brittany. In OTL, Claude was betrothed to Charles V in 1501 but when Claude’s mother Anne failed to produce a son, Louis XII of France dissolved the betrothal. Claude was then betrothed to Louis’s heir Francis, preserving the personal union of France and Brittany. Louis XII did not allow Claude to marry Charles V in OTL so I can not see him allowing another Habsburg rule Brittany in TTL. John and Maximilian would have opportunities to marry into royal and princely families throughout Europe. Perhaps a daughter of one of the electors and/or a princess from a country allied with Maximilian I would make a suitable bride.

I guess there's a solution for that, but it'll require some imagination: IOTL, Louis XII died on 1515, to be exact on January 1st. His wife, Anne, died one year earlier.

Supposing she died giving birth to a healthy son, let's name him Orlando (the same name of her late eldest son, who would be around 20 if alive at the time), then Claude of Valois would be free to marry whoever is available, after all Brittany would be inherited by her newborn brother. Her father then dies on the exact same date as IOTL, followed by Orlando not much after.

Thus, assuming she married Charles instead of Isabella of Portugal and produced heirs meanwhile, then the birth of those children would annex Brittany to the Habsburg possessions, much to the displeasure of the french court and the next king Francis I.

What about this outcome?

Plausability check: Were avunculate marriages allowed on Scandinavian countries in those times? I'm planning something to Isabella of Burgundy's daughters Dorothea and Christina...

The problem with your idea is that Orlando would become the duke of Brittany (and heir to the throne of France) upon the death of Anne. If only baby Orlando stands in the way of Claude inheriting Brittany, then there is no way Louis XII will not make sure she marries Francis before Louis's death. Even if Claude somehow backed out of her betrothal to Francis, Francis as king would have had a legal right to approve of whomever she married due to her being his vassal. Francis would never approve of Claude marrying Charles and Francis would be willing to go to war to revoke her right to rule Brittany. I do not see Charles being able to preserve Claude's rights in Brittany in the event of a war against France.

I'm running out of solutions to make Brittany a Habsburg possession, but how about Louis and Anne having two or three male heirs and a younger daughter (not Reneé of Ferrara, too young), who would be in turn offered to Francis while the eldest and most valuable Claude becomes Holy Roman Empress?

In a seemingly 'King Ralph' situation, Claude's hypothetical male siblings could die not long after Louis XII dies, leaving her and her sisters as the only heirs to Brittany. Francis would inevitably become king alongside with this imaginary Claude's sister as consort.

If both couples (Charles and Claude, Francis and whoever-sister-of-Claude) already have children, at least for one more generation the rights over Brittany are far from french hands. Is this scenario plausible?

As you mentioned, Alpha, probably a war would be triggered. But why Charles wouldn't win? Because he had not become, yet, the war-lord that he would become decades later?

Louis XII would want his first born daughter to marry Francis as insurance against the death of his sons by Anne in such a scenario. The example of Joanna’s marriage to Philip the Handsome would be an example of what can happen when you marry a younger daughter to a foreign prince. So the marriage of any sister of Claude would be deemed important to whoever is king of France. Besides any younger sister would be too young to have children with Francis in 1515 (arguably Claude was too young in OTL) and Francis wanted to have children with Claude as soon as possible. Even if Claude had somehow married Charles (assuming Charles wanted to risk war with Francis in 1515), as I said in the previous post he would have had a difficult time beating France. In 1515, France would still likely be involved in the Italian wars in TTL. In OTL, Charles and Francis signed the treaty of Noyon which terms basically had France give up its claims to the kingdom of Naples and in return received the duchy of Milan. At that point in time, Charles had not taken possession of his Spanish kingdoms and he realized he needed to get to Spain as soon as possible. For that purpose he needed the cooperation of Francis. That is why Charles signed the treaty in OTL.

Now let us say Charles takes advantage of Louis’s death in TTL to marry Claude. When Francis hears about the marriage he immediately revokes the duchy of Brittany from Claude and sends as large a force as he can spare from Italy to Brittany to depose her. Charles in 1515 only has the resources of the Netherlands to depend on and as formidable as those resources are they pale in comparison to the power of France. Charles would be obliged to form two armies: one army to defend the Netherlands and another army to defend Brittany against France. Ferdinand II, who detested Charles in OTL, is not going to help him against France. Henry VIII might help if Charles somehow pulls off some victories against the French. Henry VIII would of course want Charles to recognize his claims to the French throne. Even if Maximilian I were willing to help his grandson, he lacked the forces to make a difference. Assuming Francis still beats the Swiss and wins the war in Italy; Francis will then devote his full attention to Charles. Charles would be hard pressed to defend the Netherlands against the main French army. If Ferdinand II still dies in 1516 in TTL, then Charles will need peace in order to establish his rule in Spain. Of course in a TTL where is Charles is bold enough to provoke Francis so recklessly, Francis may sends emissaries to OTL’s Emperor Ferdinand I to convince him to become regent of Spain for Joanna and squeeze Charles out of power in Spain. Maybe Ferdinand could convince the Cortes of Aragon and Castile to let him be regent for his mother for the rest of her life. Then in TTL, Ferdinand could dispute the succession in Spain with Charles upon their mother’s death.

The bloodier the better, haha!

The things got interesting proportions now, but I must agree with you that, after all, Brittany would by all means be lost to France. The consequences of a successful Habsburg settlement would, however, be interesting.

The question I made before about avunculate marriages was about another thing I was thinking about ITTL... If, as IOTL, Charles becomes the sole heir of Spanish and Burgundian possessions, and Ferdinand becomes the Emperor plus Archduke of Austria, John and Maximilian would have little room in the power game of Europe. They could've, however, had averted this powerless condition by unorthodox ways.

In 1523, their brother-in-law Christian II of Denmark, Sweden and Norway was kicked out of the throne. The protestant kings Gustav I Vasa arose in Sweden, and Christian's uncle Frederick took his place in Denmark-Norway.

Is there any chance of John/Maximilian maybe marrying one of their nieces Dorothea or Christina (daughters to their sister Isabella and the heirs to Christian II; IOTL they indeed claimed the throne on their behalf) and, with military support by the Empire, announcing a war against those who usurped the thrones that formely belonged to the Oldenburgs, revoking Lutheranism in Scandinavia and promoting Counter-Reformation?

Alpha Trion said:

In OTL, Philip did not make any inheritance provisions for Ferdinand, so I do not see him doing anything for any additional sons he may have in TTL. In OTL, Charles V did not give Ferdinand any of his Burgundian inheritance and used his power as emperor to promulgate the Pragmatic Sanction of 1549, which united the seventeen provinces into a single entity with a common succession law. The only way Ferdinand would have ruled the Burgundian inheritance would be if Charles V had died without having any children. It should be kept in mind that in OTL, Charles V tried to have Ferdinand step aside as king of the Romans in favor of Philip II of Spain, and to the disadvantage of Ferdinand’s own sons. Ferdinand finally agreed to support the election of Philip as king of the Romans when he became emperor with Ferdinand’s son to follow Philip. This agreement was subsequently ignored by Ferdinand and the two brothers had a bitter falling out over the succession issue. Now if Charles V was that stingy with his inheritance rights in OTL, with a brother as loyal as Ferdinand was, what makes anybody think he would be more generous with John and Maximilian?

Emperor Maximilian I made provisions for Charles and Ferdinand to inherit his lands. That is why I believe he would do the same for John and Maximilian in TTL. Ferdinand II actually did want to secure the thrones of both Castile and Aragon for Ferdinand in OTL. Even a master politician like Ferdinand II could not convince the Cortes of Aragon and Castile to ignore the succession rights of Charles V if favor of his brother. Ferdinand wanted to arrange for his namesake grandson to become regent upon his death but was convinced not to do so by his advisers. So I do not see John and/or Maximilian being able to inherit any part of the Spanish inheritance. Now if Charles V has a second son in TTL, he may very well grant that son the Burgundian inheritance. The Burgundian Habsburgs could compete with their numerous Austrian cousins for the imperial throne. As for Philip’s daughters in TTL, I do not see their marriage prospects changing that much. Mary would still be betrothed and married to Louis II, Isabella to Christian II of Denmark and on. Of course who John and Maximilian marry in TTL could have repercussions. I imagine Maximilian I would look to marry them to potential heiresses as he did with Ferdinand in OTL.

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In Philip's defence he probably died, before he could make any or thought about making any such provisions.
IOTL Charles initially was only willing to cede a part of the Austrian territories to Ferdinand. Later he was convinced, that it was more efficient to keep them all together, the Ottoman threat helped with that decision.
OTOH Ferdinand later also gained the duchy of Württemberg, which combined with Further Austria, would have made the position in Swabia much stronger.
The Burgundian Inheritance didn't have a similar tradition of brothers dividing up the inheritance.

As said by others, it's not unlikely that either Maximilian or John, would follow a career in the Church, given his background he'll surely become archbishop and cardinal.
Regarding the names, ever since John (Johann) Parricida, the nephew, who killed his uncle (Habsburg) king of the Romans Albert of Austria, the name John wasn't that popular.

A surviving Philip might lead to Ferdinand II of Aragon making some inheritance provision. For instance the kingdom of Naples could be passed by will. Maybe Ferdinand is made king of Naples (peninsular Sicily) by his grandfather. Anything more would be more complicated, though Sicily also had kings separate from Aragon-Barcelona core. So Ferdinand gaining those kingdoms would still be possible. Or another favourite grandson.

Maximilian (or Ferdinand) might be the one being brought up by his namesake and thus be destined to at least inherit the Austrian Lands, he'll start out as a Governor though.

A surviving Philip probably would have reigned the HRE from his home territories, the Burgundian Lands; and he might have come to a different conclusion than OTL. He might prefer to keep Austria-Burgundy intact, especially if Louis II of Hungary-Bohemia survives and has an heir(-s).

I had not considered the succession laws in the kingdoms of Sicily and Naples. Ferdinand II did have the option of passing those kingdoms to his grandson Ferdinand in OTL, I wonder why he chose not to. So it is possible that Charles V winds up with Aragon and Castile in addition to the Netherlands, with Ferdinand inheriting Naples and Sicily, Philip the Younger (instead of the name John) and Maximilian dividing the Austrian lands between themselves upon Maximilian I’s death. Assuming Charles is still elected to the imperial throne, does he still attempt to have Ferdinand elected king of the Romans or does try to have one of their younger brothers elected? If Louis II still dies without an heir will Ferdinand (assuming his marriage to Anne) still be elected king of Bohemia and/or Hungary or would one of his younger brothers get elected?

Maybe Charles gets Castille, Aragon and Netherlands, Ferdinand just as IOTL becomes Archduke of Austria and Holy Roman Emperor, if Louis II Jagellon dies then maybe Maximilian or "Philip the Younger" (hahaha I liked this!) could be elected to the Hungarian-Bohemian throne... So we have Maximilian left without anything. Maybe as suggested, Ferdinand II of Aragon could leave the Mediterranean kingdoms of Sardinia, Sicily and Naples to this one.

Again, another at the same time related and unrelated thought: with Mary 'the Rich' of Burgundy living until old age (instead of being murdered by Maximilian I hehe) and Isabella I of Castile getting over the tragedies of her family thus not becoming depressive and dying (surviving Philip, thus there was never going to be a Philip I of Castile, at least for now; and maybe surviving Ferdinand of Aragon), how would've things developed?

Alpha Trion said:

I had not considered the succession laws in the kingdoms of Sicily and Naples. Ferdinand II did have the option of passing those kingdoms to his grandson Ferdinand in OTL, I wonder why he chose not to. So it is possible that Charles V winds up with Aragon and Castile in addition to the Netherlands, with Ferdinand inheriting Naples and Sicily, Philip the Younger (instead of the name John) and Maximilian dividing the Austrian lands between themselves upon Maximilian I’s death. Assuming Charles is still elected to the imperial throne, does he still attempt to have Ferdinand elected king of the Romans or does try to have one of their younger brothers elected? If Louis II still dies without an heir will Ferdinand (assuming his marriage to Anne) still be elected king of Bohemia and/or Hungary or would one of his younger brothers get elected?

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Firstly with 4 healthy sons, one would be destined for a church career.
IOTL it also wasn't a coincidence that archduke Ferdinand married princess Anne of Hungary-Bohemia. Hungary-Bohemia needed help against the Ottomans and neighbouring Austria was in the best position to give direct assistence, especially since they were threatened too. Ferdinand election was greatly helped by the fact, that he was (also) elected in right of his wife.
The one who will end up with the Austrian Lands, or is set to inherit them, will be married with Anne.

In case of a surviving Philip, he'll be Emperor first, then Charles might have already have become too Spanish. I can see Philip supporting, whichever son will actually rule a territory within the Empire. In part, because that's what the Imperial princes will prefer.
Even if Philip dies young ITTL, then the king of the Romans, as representative of the Emperor in the Empire, will be one of the siblings controlling Imperial territories (Austria, Burgundy and maybe (butterflies) Bohemia).

How about making things more ironic, Philip* the Younger manages to become Ferdinand of Aragon's favourite grandson? This could increase the chance of granting him the Sicilies by will. This will then be seen as his share. For instance he'll like Charles will still give their Austrian share to Ferdinand. For the same strategic reasons as IOTL, but also, depending on whether Philip the Handsome survives, his siblings** probably will think, that he had already gained more than he could have expected. (**= in case Philip still dies early)

In case of a surviving Philip, with his eldest son ruling in Spain, another ruling in Italy, one governing Austria (and maybe by that point also ruling Bohemia & Hungary) and one being a Cardinal, I can see him wanting to leave Burgundy to the son, who'll actually will be ruling in the HRE, the Austrian one.

(*= it could work with Maximilian too)

Presumably one of them would receive Milan in due time - instead of the proposed Henry FitzRoy-Infanta/Denmark marriage or even Maximilian's offer to make Henry VIII Imperial Vicar/Duke of Milan.

A surviving Philip the Handsome would change the inheritance situation significantly. Philip would be king of Castile and he would wind up raising all of his children which means none of his sons would be raised by Ferdinand II. The likelihood of Ferdinand II bequeathing Naples and/or Sicily to a grandson raised by Philip is slim. Charles V would not rule Spain (on behalf of Joanna) until Philip’s death. Philip would probably allow Charles to be regent whenever he left Spain. Also a surviving Philip might have completely different ideas about whom his children should marry than the marriages that took place in OTL. Philip and his father differed on most issues (especially on how to deal with France) so I do not see Philip letting his father arrange marriages for his children unless those marriages benefited Philip. For example Charles V might not marry Isabella or might marry her sooner in TTL or Eleanor might marry Henry VIII of England. Henry is said to have admired Philip in OTL so maybe he would seek to marry Philip’s daughter. A surviving Philip might also have more children (after Philip the Younger and Maximilian) with Joanna. Joanna was only thirty years old in 1509, so more children would be a possibility. How would Philip handle the Italian Wars in TTL? How would he (assuming he became emperor) handle Luther in TTL? Would there be a revolt in Castile during Philip’s reign? How would his children turn out with Philip raising them?

Alpha Trion said:

Henry is said to have admired Philip in OTL so maybe he would seek to marry Philip’s daughter.

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How? Catherine of Aragon was pretty alive at the time Eleanor grew enough to fulfill a position of Queen. Maybe she died giving birth to a child by Henry, maybe Mary Tudor? Then there would be room for Henry to marry her niece.

Alpha Trion said:

A surviving Philip might also have more children (after Philip the Younger and Maximilian) with Joanna. Joanna was only thirty years old in 1509, so more children would be a possibility.

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Certainly a possibility, but if four sons wouldn't be able to divide the inheritance of their grandparents equally, a scenario with further male sons would only make the issue more complicated and maybe even leading to battles/wars over it. If they had more daughters, who would they marry then? If someone here is willing to stretch this, let's then give Johanna and Philip another two sons, Henry and Ernst, and two daughters, Margaret and Beatrice.

Alpha Trion said:

How would Philip handle the Italian Wars in TTL?

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In the first place, would he be competent enough to handle this?

Alpha Trion said:

How would he (assuming he became emperor) handle Luther in TTL?

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At least in the Empire and Burgundy, his position would probably be of a tolerant and conciliatory sovereign, just as Ferdinand I and his son Maximilian II were in OTL.

Alpha Trion said:

Would there be a revolt in Castile during Philip’s reign?

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Philip was popular in Castile, but Ferdinand II would certainly trigger intrigues in order to weaken his position. Assuming that Philip's reaction towards Protestantism would be of tolerance and acceptance, probably it would raise concern amongst the staunch Catholic castilian nobility.

Alpha Trion said:

How would his children turn out with Philip raising them?

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Cold, calculating and power-starving guys, unafraid of stepping on whoever is blocking their way.