I recently read about the Portugese establishment of naval superiority over the Indian/Asian trading theatre in the renaissance and early enlightenment period. The author mentioned that the more advanced and cannon-armed ships of the Portugese and other European fleets outclassed the local ships, making a military advantage an essential part of how relatively small and far away nations like Portugal could establish dominance over huge areas of the Asian trade theatre.
The author went on to mention that contemporary Chinese ships also carried cannon, and were often larger and more battle-worthy than the ships used by Portuagal and others. But he never explained why the Chinese never intervened in the trade dominance and later colonialism of Europeans in the Far East.
Could someone help me understand why the Chinese didn't seem to do anything on the seas in general? And what could have happend if they had decided to intervene in European asian-trade in a big way during the early stage of colonialism 1500s-1600s?
The author went on to mention that contemporary Chinese ships also carried cannon, and were often larger and more battle-worthy than the ships used by Portuagal and others. But he never explained why the Chinese never intervened in the trade dominance and later colonialism of Europeans in the Far East.
Could someone help me understand why the Chinese didn't seem to do anything on the seas in general? And what could have happend if they had decided to intervene in European asian-trade in a big way during the early stage of colonialism 1500s-1600s?