At his Christmas court of 1484-1485, Richard III made the announcement that he was no longer having conjugal relations with his queen, Anne Neville. Due to the fact that their only son was already dead, this would be tantamount to publicly both discarding his wife and humiliating her (ring any Tudor bells?).
As the Kingmaker’s daughter – and I believe, unfairly portrayed in history as a perpetual victim – I could see Anne putting up as much of a fight as Catherine of Aragon, if only on a national rather than an international level. With a surviving Anne (who conveniently died, and the blackening of Richard’s reputation said he had poisoned her), would Richard be able to get a dissolution of his marriage as easily as might be hoped? And what would this mean of heirs born of a second marriage with his first wife still living?
Would he be forced to take a domestic-born wife (I have my doubts that he was truly considering his niece, although she would solve a lot of his problems), or would a foreign court (like Portugal, perhaps) be willing to trade off a spinster princess for him?
As the Kingmaker’s daughter – and I believe, unfairly portrayed in history as a perpetual victim – I could see Anne putting up as much of a fight as Catherine of Aragon, if only on a national rather than an international level. With a surviving Anne (who conveniently died, and the blackening of Richard’s reputation said he had poisoned her), would Richard be able to get a dissolution of his marriage as easily as might be hoped? And what would this mean of heirs born of a second marriage with his first wife still living?
Would he be forced to take a domestic-born wife (I have my doubts that he was truly considering his niece, although she would solve a lot of his problems), or would a foreign court (like Portugal, perhaps) be willing to trade off a spinster princess for him?